LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION2(推荐12篇)由网友“库哇库哇”投稿提供,下面是小编为大家整理后的LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION2,欢迎阅读与收藏。
篇1:LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION2
section ii
time—35 minutes
25 questions
directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions. more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions. you should not make assumptions that are by blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. when politicians resort to personal atacks many editortalists criticize thest attacks but most voters pay them scant attention. eeveryone knows such attacks will end after election day, and politicians can be excused for mudslinging. political commentators, however, cannot be. political commentators should be engaged in sustained and senous debate about ideas and policies. in such a context personal attacks on opponents serve not to beat those opponents but to cut off the debate.
which of the following most accurately states the main point of the argument?
(a) dersonal attacks on opponets serve a usuful purpose for politicians.
(b) political commentators should not resort to personal attacks on their opponents.
(c) editonalists are right to criticize politicians who resort to personal attacks on their opponents.
(d) the purpose of serious debate about ideas and policies is to counteract the effect of personal attacks by politicians.
(e) voters should be concerned about the personal attacks politicians make on each other.
2. throughout the popoya islands community pressure is exerted on people who win the national lottery to share their good fortune with their neighbors. when people living in rural areas win the lottery they invariably throw elaborate neighborhood feasts, often wiping, out all of their lottery winmmings. however, in the cities, lottery winners frequently use their winnings for their own personal investment rather than sharing their good fortune with their neighbors.
which one of the following true, contributes most to an explanation of the difference between the behavior of lottery winners in rural areas and those in cities?
(a) twice as many popoyans live in rural areas as live in the city.
(b) popoyan city dwellers tend to buy several lottery tickets at a time, but they buy tickets less frequently than do rural dwellers.
(c) lottery winners in rural areas are notified of winning by public posting of lists of winners, but notification in the city is by private mail.
(d) families in rural areas in the popoyas may contain twelve or foruteen people, but city families average six or seven.
(e) twice as many lottery tickets are sold in rural areas as are sold in the city.
3. a new medication for migraine seems effective, but there is concern that the medication might exacerbate heart disease. if patiens with heart disease take the medication under careful medical supervision. however, harmful side effects can definitely be averted. the concern about those side effects is thus unfounded.
the argument depends on which one of the following assumptions?
(a) the new medication actually is effective when taken by patients with heart disease.
(b) no migraine sufferers with heart disease will take the new medication except under careful medical supervision.
(c) most migraine sufferers who have taken the new medication in trials also had heart disease
(d) the new medication has various other side effects, but none as serious as that of exacerbating heart disease.
(e) the new medication will displace all migrame medicztions currently being used.
4. the highest-ranking detectives in the city s police department are also the most adept at solving crimes. yet in each of the past ten years. the average success rate for the city s highest-ranking detectives in solving crimnal cases has been no higher than the average success rate for its lowest-ranking detectives.
which one of the follwing, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox?
(a) the detectives who have the highest success rate in solving criminal cases are those who have worked as detectives the longest.
(b) it generally takes at least ten years for a detective to rise from the lowest to the highest ranks of the city s detective force.
(c) those detectives in the police department who are the most adept at solving criminal cases are also those most likely to remain in the police department.
(d) the police department generally gives the criminal cases that it expects to be the easiest to solve to its lowest-ranking detectives.
(e) none of the lowest-ranking detectivesin the police department had experiecne in solving critninal cases prior to joining the police deparment.
5. imgation runoff from neighboring farms may well have increased the concentration of phosphorus in the local swamp above previous levels, but the claim that the increase in phosphorus is harming the swamp s native aquatie wildlife is false: the phospborus concentration in the swamp is actually less than that found in certain kinds of bottled water that some people drink every day.
the argument is vulnerable to criticism on the ground that it
(a) makes exaggerations in formulating the claim against which it argues
(b) bases its conclusion on two contradictiry claims
(c) relies on evidence the relevance of which has not been established
(d) concedes the very point that it argues against
(e) makes a generalization that is unwarranted because the sources of the data on which it is based have not been specified.
6. copyright laws protect the rights of writers to profits earned from their writings. whereas patent laws protec: inventors rights to profits earned from their inventions in jawade, when computer-software writers demanded that their rights to profit be protected, the courts determined that information written for a machine does not fit into either the copyright or the patent category. clearly, therefore, the profit rights of computer-software writers remain unprotected in jawade.
which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(a) computer-software writers are not an influential enough group in jawade for the government to consider modifying existing copyright laws in order to protect this group s profit rights.
(b) no laws exist, other than copyright laws and patent laws, that would protect the profit rights of computer-software writers in jawade.
(c) most of the computer software used in jawade is imported from other countries.
(d) computer software is more similar to writings covered by copyright laws than it is to inventions covered by patent laws.
(e) copyright laws and patent laws in jawade have not been modified since their original adoption.
7. brownlea s post office must be replaced with a larger one. the present one cannot be expanded. land near the present location in the center of town is more expensive than land on the outskirts of town. since the cost of acquiring a site is a significant part of the total construction cost, the post office clearly could be built more cheaply on the outskirts of town.
which one of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the argument s stated conclusion?
(a) the new post office will have to be built in accordance with a demanding new citywide building code.
(b) if the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, it will require a parking lot, but if sited near the present post office it will not.
(c) if the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, current city bus routes will have to be expanded to provide access.
(d) if the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, residents will make decreased use of post office boxes, with the result that mail carriers will have to deliver more mail to homes.
(e) if the new post office is built near the center of town, disruptions to city traffic would have to be minimized by taking such steps as doing some construction work in stages at night and on weekends.
8. in the past, the railroads in ostronia were run as regional monopelies and opeerated with little regard for what customers wanted. in recent years, with improvements to the ostronian national highway network the railroad companies have faced heavy competition from longdistance trucking companies. but because of government subsidies that have permitted ostronian railroad companies to operate even while incuring substantial losses, the companies continie to disregard customers needs and desires.
if the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?
(a) if the government of ostronia ceases to subsidize railroad companies. few of those companies will continue to operate.
(b) few companies in ostronia that have received subsidies from the government have taken the needs and desires of their customers into account.
(c) without government subsidies, railroad companies in ostronia would have to increase the prices they charge their customers.
(d) the transportation system in ostronia is no more efficient today than it was in the past.
(e) in recent years, some companies in ostronia that have had little regard for the desires of their customers have nonetheless survived.
9. although damon had ample time carlier in the month to complete the paper he is scheduled to present at a professional conference tomorrow morning he repeatedly put off doing it. damon could still get the paper ready in time, but only if he works on it all evening without interruption. however, his seven-year-old daughter s tap-dance recital takes place this evening and damon had promised both to attend and to take his daughter and her friends out for ice cream afterward. thus, because of his procrastination. damon will be forced to choose between his professional and his farmily responsibilities.
the argument proceeds by
(a) providing evidence that one event will occur in order to establish that an altemative event cannot occur
(b) showing that two situations are similar in order to justify the claim that someone with certain responsibilities in the first situation has similar responsibilities in the second situation
(c) invoking sympathy for someone who finds himself in a dilemma in order to excuse that person s failure to meet all of his responsibilities
(d) making clear the extent to which someone s actions resulted in harm to others in order to support the claim that those actions were irresponsible
(e) demonstrating that two situations cannot both occur by showing that something necessary for one of those situations is incompatible with something necessary for the other situation
10. the increase in the price of jet fuel is due to a sharp decrease over the past year in the supply of jet fuel available relative to demand. nonetheless, the amount of jet fuel available for sale is larger today than it was last year.
if the statements above are true, which one of the following conclusions can be properly drawn on the basis of them?
(a) the demand for jet fuel has increased over the past year.
(b) the fuel efficiency of jet engines has increased over the past year.
(c) the number of jet airline flights has decreased over the past year.
(d) the cost of refining petroleum for jet fuel has increased over the past year.
(e) the supply of petroleum available for jet fuel ha decreased over the past year.
questions 11-12
nan government subsidies have been proposed in cariana to encourage farmers in rochelle, the country s principal agricultural region, to implement certain new farming techniques unless these techniques are implemented erosion of productive topsoil cannot be controlled unfortunately farmers cannot afford to shoulder the entire cost of the new techniques, which are more expensive than those currently used therefore, without subsidies agricultural output in rochelle will inevitably decline
betty but erosion in rochelle is caused by recurring floods, which will end next year once cariana completes the hydroelectric dam it is building across the region s major river therefore, rochelle s total agricultural output will stabilize at its present level even without subsidres.
11. which one of the following is an assumption on which betty s argument depends?
(a) building a dam across rochelle s major river will not reduce any recurrent flooding that occurs in regions of cariana other than rochelle.
(b) the new farming techniques that must be implemented to control soil erosion in rochelle are not well suited to other regions of cariana
(c) the current yearly output, if any from rochelle s land that will be permanently under water once the dam is completed will at least be matched by additional yearly output from rochelle s remaining land
(d) the cost to the government of cariana to operate the hydroelectric dam will not be greater than the projected cost of subsidizing the farmers of rochelle in the implementation of the new farming techniques
(e) the government of cariana has sufficient financial resources both to subsidize its farmers implementation of new farming techniques and to operate a hydroelectric dam.
12. betty uses which one of the following argumentative techniques in countering alan s argument?
(a) showing that one premise in alan s argument is inconsistent with another premise in his argument
(b) making additional claims that, if correct undermine a premise in alan s argument
(c) demonstrating that alan s conclusion is true but not for the reasons alan gives to support it
(d) presenting evidence indicating that the policy alan argues in favor of would have damaging consequences that outweigh its positive consequences.
(e) pointing out that alan s argument mistakenly identifies something as the cause of a trend when it is really an effect of that trend
13. astronomers have long thought that the irregularity in the orbit of the planet neptune was adequately explained by the gravitational pull exerted on neptune by the planet pluto the most recent observations of pluto, however indicate that this planet is much too small to exert the amount of gravitational pull on neptune that astronomers once thought it did
if the statements above are true, they provide the most support for which one of the following?
(a) neptune is somewhat larger than scientists once believed it to be
(b) the orbit of neptune is considerably more irregular than scientists once thought it was
(c) there exists another as yet undiscovered planet with an orbit beyond that of pluto
(d) the gravitational pull of pluto is not the sole cause of neptune s irregular orbit
(e) further observations of pluto will eventually show it to be even smaller than it is now thought to be
questions 14-15
in most corporations the salaries of executives are set by a group from the corporation s board of directors. since the board s primary mission is to safeguard the economic health of the corporation rather than to make its executives rich, this way of setting executives salaries is expected to prevent excessively large salaries but , clearly this expectation is based on poor reasoning after all, most members of a corporation s board are themselves executives of some corporation and can expect to benefit from setting generous benchmarks for executives salaries.
14. the point made by the author is that the most common way of setting executives salaries might not keep those salaries in bounds because
(a) most corporals exectives, thanks to their generous salaries, are not financially dependent on money earned as board members
(b) most corporals executives might be less generous in setting their own salaries than the board members actually setting them are
(c) many board members might let their self-interest as executives interfere with properly discharging their role as board members in setting executives salaries
(d) many board members who set executives salaries unreasonably high do so because they happen to be on the board of a corporation of which they expect later to become executives
(e) many board members are remunerated generously and wish to protect this source of income by pleasing the executives to whom they owe their appointments on the board
15. which one of the following practices is vulnerable to a line of criticism most parallel to that used in the argument in the passage?
(a) in medical malpractice suits giving physicrans not directly involved in a suit a major role in determining the damages due to successful plaintiffs
(b) in a legislature, allowing the legislators to increase their own salaries only if at least two-thirds of them vote in favor of an increase
(c) to work both fast an accurately by paying them by the piece but counting only pieces of acceptable quality
(d) in a sports competition decided by judges scores selecting the judges from among people retured from that sport after successful careers
(e) in a business organization distributing a group bonus among the members of a task force on the basis of a confidential evaluation by each member of the contribution made by each of the others.
16. consumer advocate one advertisement that is deceptive, and thus morally wrong, states that gram for gram, the refined sugar used in out chocolate pies is no more fattening than the sugars found in fruits and vegetables“ this is like trying to persuade someone that chocolate pies are not fattening by saying that, calorie for calorie they are no more fattening than celery true but it would take a whole shopping cart full of celery to equal a chocolate pie s worth of calories
a dvertiser this advertisement cannot be called deceptive. it is, after all true
which one of the following principles, if established would do most to support the consumer advocate s position against the advertiser s response?
(a) it is morally wrong to seek to persuade by use of deceptive statements
(b) a true statement should be regarded as deceptive only if the person making the statement believes it to be false, and thus intends the people reading or hearing it to acquire a false belief.
(c) to make statements that impart only a small proportion of the information in one s possession should not necessarily be regarded as deceptive
(d) it is morally wrong to make a true statement in a manner that will deceive hearers or readers of the statement into believing that it is false
(e) a true statement should be regarded as deceptive if it is made with the expectation that people hearing or reading the statement will draw a false conclusion from it.
17. members of the amazonian akabe people commonly take an early-morning drink of a tea made from the leaves of a forest plant. although they greatly enjoy this drink, at dawn they drink it only in small amounts. anthropologists hypothesize that since this tea is extraordinarily high in caffeine, the explanation for the akabe s not drinking more of it at dawn is that high caffeine intake would destroy the surefootedness that their daily tasks require.
which one of the following, if true, most seriously calls the anthropologists explanation into question?
(a) the drink is full of nutrients otherwise absent from the akabe diet
(b) the akabe also drink the tea in the evening, after their day s work is done.
(c) the leaves used for the tea contain a soluble narcotic.
(d) akabe children are introduced to the tea in only a very weak form.
(e) when celebrating, the akabe drink the tea in large quantities.
18. all of the cargo ships of the blue star liner are over 100 meters long, and all of its passenger ships are under 100 meters long. most of the ships of the blue star line were built before 1980. all of the passenger and cargo ships of the gold star line were built after 1980, and all are under 100 meters long. the dockside facilities of port tropica, which is open only to ships of these two lines, can accommodate only those ships that are less than 100 meters long. the s.s. coral is a cargo ship that is currently docked at port tropica
if the statements above are true, which one of the following must be true on the basis of them?
(a) the s.s.coral was built after 1980.
(b) the s.s.coral belongs to the blue star line.
(c) port tropica is served only by cargo ships.
(d) port tropica is not served by ships of the blue start line.
(e) all of the ships of the blue star line are older than any of the ships of the gold star line.
19. spectroscopic analysis has revealed the existence of frozen nitrogen, methane, and carbon monoxide on the surface of pluto. such ices have a tendency to vaporize, producing an atmosphere. since the proportion of any gas in such an atmosphere depends directly on how readily the corresponding ice vaporizes, astronomers have concluded that the components of pluto s atmosphere are nitrogen, carbon monoxide, and methane, in order of decreasing abundance.
the astronomers argumetn relies on which one of the following assumptions?
(a) there is no more frozen nitrogen on the surface of pluto than there is either frozen carbon monoxide or methane.
(b) until space probes reach pluto, direct analysis of the atmosphere is impossible.
(c) there is no frozen substance on the surface of pluto that vaporizes more readily than methane but less readily than carbon monoxide.
(d) nitrogen is found in the atmosphere of a planet only if nitrogen ice is found on the surface of that planet.
(e) a mixture of nitrogen, carbon monoxide, and methane is characteristic of the substances from which the solar system formed.
20. ann will either take a leave of absence from technocomp and return in a year or else she will quit her job there; but she would not do either one unless she were offerend a one-year teaching fellowship at a prestigious university. technocomp will allow her to take a leave of absence if it does not find out that she has been offered the fellowship, but not otherwise, therefore, ann will quit her job at tedhnocomp only if technocomp finds out she has been oftered the fellowship.
which one of the following, if assumed, allows the conclusion above to be properly drawn?
(a) technocomp will find out about ann being offered the fellowship only if someone informs on her.
(b) the reason ann wants the fellowship is so she can quit her job at technocomp.
(c) technocomp does not allow any of its employees to take a leave of absence in order to work for one of its competitors.
(d) ann will take a leave of absence if technocomp allows her to take a leave of absence.
(e) ann would be offered the fellowship only if she quit her job at technocomp.
21. if a mechanical aerator is installed in a fish pool, the water in the pool can be properly aerated. so, since john s fish pool does not have a mechanical aerator, it must be that his pool is not properly aerated. without properly aerated water, fish cannot thrive. therefore, any fish in john s fish pool will not thrive.
which one of the following arguments contains an error of reasoning that is also contained in the argument above?
(a) if alum is added to pickle brine, brine can replace the water in the pickles. therefore, since paula does not add alum to her pickle brine, the water in the pickles cannot be replaced by brine. unless their water is replaced with brine, pickles will not stay crisp. thus, paula s pickles will not stay crisp.
(b) if pectin is added to jam, the jam will gel. without a setting agent such as pectin, jam will not ge. so in order to make his jam gel. harry should add a setting agent such as pectin to the jam.
(c) if stored potatoes are not exposed to ethylene the potatoes will not sprout. beets do not release ethylene. therefore, if sara stores her potatoes together with beets, the potatoes will not sprout.
(d) if a carrot patch is covered with mulch in the fall. the carrots can be left in the ground until spring without a mulch cover, carrots stored in the ground can suffer frost damage. thus, since kevin covers his carrot patch with mulch in the fall, the carrots can safely be left in the ground.
(e) if tomatoes are not stored in a dark place, their seeds sometimes sprout. sprouted seeds can make tomatoes inedible. therefore, since maria does not store her tomatoes in a dark place some of maria s tomatoes could be inedible.
questions 22-23
antinuclear activist: the closing of the nuclear power plant is a victory for the antinuclear cause. it also represents a belated acknowledgment by the power industry that they cannot operate such plants safely.
nuclear power plant manager : it represents no such thing. the availability of cheap power from nonnuclear sources. together with the cost of mandated safety inspections and safety repairs, made continued operation uneconomic. thus it was not safety considerations but economic considerations taht dictated the plant s closing.
22. the reasoning in the manager s argument is flawed because the argument
(a) fails to acknowledge that the power industry might now believe nuclear power plants to be unsafe even though this plant was not closed for safety reasons
(b) overlooks the possibility that the soruces from which cheap power is available might themselves be subject to safety concerns
(c) mistakes the issue of what the closure of the plant represents to the publie for the issue of what the managers reason for the closure were
(d) takes as one of its premises a view about the power industry s attitude toward nuclear safety that contradicts the activist s view
(e) counts as purely economic considerations some expenses that arise as a result of the need to take safety precautions
23. which one of the following if true, most strongly supports the activist s claim of victory?
(a) the plant had reached the age at which its operating license expired.
(b) the mandate for inspections and repairs mentioned by the manager was recently enacted as a result of pressure from antinuclear groups.
(c) the plant would not have closed if cheap power from nonnuclear sources had not been available.
(d) per unit of electricity produced the plant had the highest operating costs of any nuclear power plant.
(e) the plant that closed had been able to provide backup power to an electrical network when parts of the network became overloaded.
questions 24-25
statistician changes in the sun s luminosity correlate exceedingly well with average land temperatures on earth. clerly—and contrary to accepted opinion among meteorologists—the sun s lumionsity essentially controls land temperatures on earth.
meteorologist: i disagree any professional meteorologist will tell you that in a system as complicated as that giving rise to the climate, no significant aspect can be controlled by a single variable
24. the rejection by the meteorologist of the statistician s conclusion employs which one of the following techniques of argumentation?
(a) supporting a conclusion about a specific case by invoking a relevant generalization
(b) producint a single counterexample that establishes that a generalization is false as state
(c) reanalyzing a correlation as reflecting the multiple effects of a single cause
(d) rejecting a conclusion because it is a proposition that cannot be experimentally tested
(e) pointing out that potentially unfavorable evident has been systematically neglected
25. the reasoning in the meteorologist s counterargument questionable because that argument
(a) rejects a partial explanation, not because it is incorrect but only because it is not complete
(b) fails to distinguish phenomena that exist independently of a particular system from phenomena that exist only as part of the system.
(c) calls into question the existence of a correlation when the only real issue is that of how to interpret the correlation
(d) dismisses a hypothesis on the grounds that is fail to deal with anymatters of scientific significant
(e) appeals to the authoritativeness of an opinion without evaluating the merit of a putative counterexample
篇2:LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION2
section ii
time—35 minutes
25 questions
directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer, that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should pot make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage after you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on you answer sheet.
1. press release a comprehensive review evaluating the medical studies done up to the present time has found no reason to think that drinking coffee in normal amounts harms the coffee-drinker s heart so coffee drinkers can relax and enjoy their beverage—it is safe to drink coffee
which one of the following points to a weakness in the reasoning in the press release s argument?
(a) the review was only an evaluation of studies and did not itself undertake to study patients.
(b) the health of the heart is not identical with the general health of the body
(c) coffee drinkers might choose to eat along with their coffee foods contaming substances that harm the heart
(d) other beverages besides coffee might contain stimulants that have some effect on the heart
(e) drinking unusually large amounts of coffee could be caused by stress that itself directly harms the heart
2. all people prefer colors that they can distinguish easily to colors that they have difficulty distinguishing. infants can easily distinguish bright colors but, unlike adults, have difficulty distinguishing subtle shades. a brightly colored toy for infants sells better than the same toy in subtle shades at the same price
which one of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by the information in the passage?
(a) infants prefer bright primary colors to bright secondary colors
(b) color is the most important factor in determining which toys an infant will prefer to play with
(c) individual infants do now have strong preferences for one particular bright color over other bright colors
(d) the sales of toys ofr infants reflect the preferences of infants in at least one respect
(e) toy makers study infants to determine what colors the infants can distinguish easily
3. a group of unusual meteorites was found in shergotty. india. their structure indicates that they originated on one of the geologically active planets. mercury, venus, or mars because of mercury s proximity to the sun any material dislodged from that planet s surface would have been captured by the sun, rather than falling to earth as meteorites, nor could venus be the source of the meteorites, because its gravity would have prevented dislodged material from escaping into space the meteorites, therefore, probably fell to earth after being dislodged from mars, perhaps as the result of a collision with a large object
the argument derives its conclusion by
(a) offering a counterexample to a theory
(b) eliminating competing alternative explanations
(c) contrasting present circumstances with past circumstances
(d) questioning an assumption
(e) abstracting a general principle from specific data
4. because quitting smoking is very stressful and leads to weight gain, it is difficult to do. the key to quitting however, may be as simple as replacing an unhealthy activity with a healthy one in one study half of htose attempting to quit were assigned to a smoking-cessation program alone, and the other half were assigned to the same program plus fifteen weeks of aerobic exercise the one-month mark none in the first group had quit but 40 percent of those in the second group had not smoked
each of the following, if true, provides some support for the argument except:
(a) regular exercise prevents weight gain
(b) each group in the study included four hundred randomly selected participants
(c) nonsmokers accustomed to regular exercise do not gain weight when they stop exercising
(d) aerobic exercise can stimulate the brain s production of endorphins. which reduce tension
(e) of those in the second group in the study 38 percent had not smoked at the one-year mark.
5. altogethe, the students in ms. tarnowski s milton elementary school class collected more aluminum cans than did the students in any of the school s other classes therefore, the milton student who collected the most aluminum cans was in ms tarnowski s class
which one of the following arguments contains flawed reasoning that is most paralled to that in the argument above?
(a) altogether, more trees were planted by the students in mr kelly s class than were planted by those in mr liang s class and mr jackson s class combined therefore. mr kelly s students planted more trees than mr jackson s students planted
(b) more than half of milton elementary school s students play in the band and more than half of the school s students sing in the choir therefore, every student at milton elementary school either plays in the band or sings in the choir
(c) mr rowe s milton elementary school class raised more money by selling candy bars than ms hunt s class raised by holding a raffle. therefore, the number of candy bars sold by mr rowe s class was greater than the number of raffle tickets sold by ms. hunt s class
(d) the total number of tickets to the school fair sold by the students in ms. ramirez s milton elementary school class was greater than the number sold by milton students from any other class. therefore, the milton student who sold the most tickets to the school fair was a student in ms rairez s class
(e) ms. ventura s milton elementary school class assembled more birdhouses than did any of the school s other classes. since ms ventura s class had fewer students than any other milton class, her students assembled more birdhouse on average than did the students in any other milton class
6. several excellent candidates have been proposed for the presidency of united wire and each candidate would bring to the job different and experience if the others are compared with jones however it will be apparent that none of them has her unique set of qualifications jones therefore is best qualified to be the new president of united wire
the argument is vulnerable to criticism on the ground that it
(a) uses flattery to win over those who hold an opposing position
(b) refutes a distorted version of an opposing position
(c) seeks to distinguish one member of a group on the basis of something that applies to all
(d) supports universal claim on the basis of a single example
(e) describes an individual in terms that appropriately refer only to the group as a whole
7. a neighborhood groupp plans to protest the closing of the neighborhood s only recreation center on the grounds that to do so would leave the neighborhood without local access to a recreation center ”our neighborhood already has the most residents per center of any neighborhood in the city“ complained one resident, ”and closing this center would make the situation unacceptable since access to recreational facilities is a necessity for this neighborhood“
each of the following if true weakens the resident s argument except
(a) a large number of the neighborhood s residents are unable to travel outside their locality to gain access to recreational facilities
(b) children, the main users of recreational facilities make up a disproportionately small segment of the neighborhood s population
(c) often the recreation center in the neighborhood is open but not being used.
(d) programs that are routinely filled at other recreation centers must be canceled at the ngighborhood s recreation center due to lack of interest
(e) as people become more involved in computers and computer games recreation centers are becoming increasingly less important
8. sociologist: the claim that there is a large number of violent crimes in our society is false, for this claim is based upon the large number of stories in newspapers about violent crimes. but since violent crimes are very rare occurrences, newspapers are likely to print stories about them.
the sociologist s argument is flawed because it
(a) presupposes that most newspaper stories are about violent crime
(b) presupposes the truth of the conclusion it is attempting to establish
(c) assumes without warrant that the newspaper stories in question are not biased
(d) mistakes property of each member of a group taken as an individual for a property of the group taken as a whole
(e) uncritically draws an inference from what has been true in the past to what will be true in the future
9. historian anyone who thinks that the terrors of the ancient rgeime of q were exclusively the work of fanatics is overlooking a basic truth the regime was made up primarily of ordinary people enthusiasically seeking paradist. the regime executed many people in pursuit of its goal. but it later became clear that paradise as they defined it, is unrealizable so at least some of the ordinary people of q were in fact murdreers
which one of the following principles, if valid, provides the most support for the historian s argumentation?
(a) the pursuit of paradise does not justify murder
(b) the pursuit of paradise justifies fanaticism
(c) execution in pursuit of what is later found to be unattainable constitutes murder
(d) fanaticism in pursuit of paradise constitutes inhumanity
(e) enthusiasm in pursuit of what is eventually found to be unattainable constitutes fanaticism
10. economist: the economy seems to be heading out of recession. recent figures show that consumers are buying more durable goods than before indicating that they expect economic growth in the near future
that consumers are buying more durable goods than before figures in the economist s argument in which one of the following ways?
(a) it is the phenomenon that the argument seeks to explain
(b) its truth is required in order for the argument s conclusion to be true
(c) it is an inference drawn from the premise that the recession seems to be ending
(d) it is an inference drawn from the premise that consumers expect economic growth in the near future
(e) it is the primary evidence from which the argument s conclusion is drawn
11. not surprisingly, there are no professors under the age of eighteen and as is well known no one under eighteen can vote legally. finally some brilliant people are professors some are legal voters and some are under eighteen
if the statements above are true, then on the basis of them which one of the following must also be true?
(a) no professors are eighteen-year-olds
(b) all brilliant people are either professors legal voters or under eighteen
(c) some legal voters are not professors
(d) some professors are neither legal voters not brilliant people
(e) some brilliant people are neither professors nor legal voters
12. for years scientists have been scanning the skies in the hope of finding life on other planets. but in spite of the ever-increasing sophistication of the equipment they employ, some of it costing hundreds of millions of dollars not the first shred of evidence of such life has been forthcoming and there is no reason to think that these scientists will be any more successful in the future no matter how much money is invested in the search the dream of finding extraterrestrial life is destined to remain a dream as science s experience up to this point should indicate
which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the argument?
(a) there is no reason to believe that life exists on other planets
(b) the equipment that scientists employ is not as sophisticated as it should be
(c) scientists searching for extraterrestrial life will not find it
(d) only if scientists had already found evidence of life on other planest would continued search be justified
(e) we should not spend money on sophisticated equipment to aid in the search for extraterrestrial life
13. carl s coffee emporium stocks only two decaffeinated coffees: french roast and mocha java yusef only serves decaffeinated coffee and the coffee he served after dineer last night was smooth and mellow have been french roast so if yusef still gets all his coffee from carl s what he served last night was mocha java
the argument above is most similar in its logical structure to which one of the following?
(a) samuel wants to take three friends to the beach his mother wons both a sedan and a convertible the convertible holds four people so although the sedan has a more powerful engine, if samuel borrows a vehicle from his mother he will borrow the convertible
(b) if anna wants to walk from her house to the office where she works she must either go through the park or take the overpass across the railroad tracks the park paths are muddy and anna does not like using the overpass so the never walks to work
(c) rose can either take a two-week vaction the trail she had planned to hike requires three weeks to complete but is closed by october so if rose takes a vacation it will not be the one she had planned
(d) werdix, inc has offered arno a choice between a job in sales and a job in research arno would like to work at werdix but he would never take a job in sales when another job is available so if he accepts on of these jobs it will be the one in research
(e) if teresa does not fire her assistant her staff will rebel and her department s efficiency will decline losing her assistant would also reduce its efficiency so if no alternative solution can be found theresa s department will become less efficient
14. steven the allowable blood alcohol level for drivers should be cut in half with this reduced limit, social drinkers will be deterred from drinking and driving, resulting in significantly increased highway safety
miguel: no lowering the current allowable blood alcohol level would have little effect on highway statey because it would not address the most important aspect of the drunken driving problem which is the danger to the public posed by heavy drinkers who often drive with a blood alcohol level of twice the current legal limit.
steven and miguel s statements provide the most support for that they would disagree about the truth of which one of the following statements?
(a) social drinkers who drink and drive pose a substantial threat to the public
(b) there is a direct correlation between a driver s blood alcohol level and the driver s ability to drive safely
(c) a driver with a blood alcohol level above the current legal limit poses a substantial danger to the public
(d) some drivers whose blood alcohol level is lower than the current legal limit pose a danger to the public
(e) a driver with a blood alcohol level slightly greater than half the current legal limit poses no danger to the public
questions 15-16
the authors of a recent article examined warnings of an impending wave of extinctions of animal species within the next 100 years. these authors say that no evidence exists to support the idea that the rate of extinction of animal species is now accelerating. they are wrong however consider only the data on fishes 40 species and subspecies of north american fishes have vanished in the twentieth century, 13 between 1900 and 1950, and 27 since 1950
15. which one of the following is the main point of the argument?
(a) there is evidence that the rate of extinction of animal species is accelerating
(b) the future rate of extinction of animal species cannot be determined from available evidence
(c) the rate of extinction of north american fishes is parallel to the rate of extinction of all animal species taken together
(d) forty species and subspecies of north american fishes have vanished in the twentieth century
(e) a substantial number of fish species are in danger of imminent extinction
16. the answer to which one of the following questions would contribute most to an evaluation of the argument?
(a) were the fish species and subspecies that became extinct unrepresenatative of animal species in general with regard to their pattern of extinction?
(b) how numerous were the populations in 1950 of the species and subspecies of north american fishes that have become extinct since 1950?
(c) did any of the species or subspecies of north american fishes that became extinct in the twentieth century originate in regions outside of north america?
(d) what proportion of north american fish species and subspecies whose populations were endangered in 1950 are now thriving?
(e) were any of the species or subspecies of north american fishes that became extinct in the twentiethe century commercially important?
17. after the second world war, the charter of the newly formed united nations established an eleven-member security council and charged it with taking collective action in response to threats to world peace. the charter further provided that the five nations that were then the major powers would permanently have sole authority to cast vetoes. the reason given for this arrangement was that the burden of maintaining world peace would rest on the world s major powes and should be required to assume the burden of enforcing a decision it found repugnant
the reasoning given for the structure of the security council assumes that
(a) it does not make sense to provide for democracy among nations when nations themselves are not all democracies
(b) no nation that was not among the major powers at the end of the second world war would become a major power
(c) nations would not eventually gravitate into large geographical bloes, each containing minor powers as well as at least one major power
(d) minor powers would not ally themselves with major powers to gain the prection of the veto exercised by major powers
(e) decisions reached by a majority of nations in response to threats to world peace would be biased in favor of one or more major powers
18. environmental scientist: it is true that over the past ten years, there has been a sixfold increase in government funding for the preservation of wetlands while the total area of wetlands needing such preservation has increased only twofold (although this area was already large ten years ago) even when inflation is taken into account, the amount of funding now is at least three times what it was ten years ago. nevertheless the current amount of government funding for the preservation of wetlands is inadequate and should be augmented
which one of the following, if true most helps to reconcile the environmental scientist s conclusion with the evidence cited above?
(a) the governmental agency responsible for administering wetland-preservation funds has been consistently mismanaged and run inefficiently over the past ten years
(b) over the past ten years, the salaries of scientists employed by the government to work on the preservation of wetlands have increased at a rate higher than the inflation rate
(c) research over the past ten years has enabled scientists today to identify wetlands in need of preservation well before the areas are at serious risk of destruction
(d) more people today scientists and nonscientists alike, are working to preserve all natural resources including wetlands
(e) unlike today funding for the preservation of wetlands was almost nonexistent ten years ago.
19. in australia the population that is of driving age has grown large over the last five years, but the annual number of traffic fatalities has declined. this leads to the conclusion that, overall, the driving-age population of australi consists of more skillful drivers now than five years ago.
each of the statements below, if true, weakens the argument except:
(a) three years ago, a mandatory seat-belt law went into effect throughout australia.
(b) five years ago. australia began a major road repair project
(c) because of increases in the price of fuel australians on average drive less each year than in the preceding year.
(d) the number of hospital emergency facilities in australia has doubled in the last five years
(e) in response to an increase in traffic fatalities. australia instituted a program of mandatory driver education five years ago.
20. anthropological studies indicate that distinct cultures differs in their moral codes. thus, as long as there are distinct cultures there are no values shared across cultures
each of the following, if true, would weaken the argument except”
(a) anthropologists rely on inadequate translation techniques to investigate the values of cultures that use languages different from the anthropologists languages.
(b) as a result of advancing technology and global communication we will someday all share the same sulture and the same values
(c) although specific moral values differ across cultures, more general moral principles, such as “friendship is good” are common to all cultures
(d) the anthropologists who have studied various cultures have been biased in favor of finding differences rather than similarities between distinct cultures
(e) what appear to be differences in values between distinct cultures are nothing more than differences in beliefs about how to live in accordance with shared values.
21. newspaper editor. law enforcenment experts, as well as most citizens, have finally come to recognize that legal prohibitions against gambling all share a common flaw no matter how diligent the effort, the laws are impossible to enforce. ethical qualms notwithstanding, when a law fails to be effective it should not be a law. that is why there should be no legal prohibition against gambling.
which one of the following if assumed. allows the argument s conclusion to be properly drawn?
(a) no effective law is unenforceable
(b) all enforceable laws are effective
(c) no legal prohibitions against gambling are enforceable
(d) most citizens must agree with a law for the law to be effective
(e) most citizens must agree with a law for the law to be enforceable.
22. copernicus s astronomical system is superior to ptolemy s and was so at the time it was proposed, even though at that time all observational evidence was equally consistent with both theories. ptolemy believed that the stars revolved around the earth at great speeds. this struck copernicus as unlikely, he correctly thought that a simpler theory is that the earth rotates on its axis.
the argument most closely conforms to which one of the following principles?
(a) simplicity should be the sole deciding factor in choosing among competing scientific theories
(b) if one theory is likely to be true, and another competing theory is likely to be false, then the one likely to be true is the superior of the two.
(c) if all observational evidence is consistent with two competing theories, the one that is more intuitively true is the more practical theory to adopt.
(d) other things being equal the more complex of two competing theories is the inferior theory
(e) other things being equal, the simpler of two competing theories is the more scientifically important theory.
23. easayist the existence of a moral order in the universe—i.e..an order in which bad is always eventually punished and good rewarded—depends upon human souls being immortal. in some cultures this moral order is regarded as the result of a karma that controls how one is reincarnated, in others it results from the actions of a supreme being who metes out justice to people after their death. but however a moral order is represented if human souls are immortal then if follows that the bad will be punished
which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the essayist s reasoning?
(a) from the assertion that something is necessary to a moral order the argument concludes that that thing is sufficient for an element of the moral order to be realized
(b) the argument takes mere beliefs to be established facts
(c) from the claim that the immortality of human souls implies that there is a moral order in the universe the argument concludes that there being a moral order in the universe implies that human souls are immortal
(d) the argument treats two fundamentally different conceptions of a moral order as essentially the same
(e) the argument s conclusion is presupposed in the definition it gives of a moral order.
24. no mathematical proposition can be proven true by observation. it follows that it is impossible to know any mathematical proposition to be true
the conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?
(a) only propositions that can be proven true can be known to be true
(b) observation alone cannot be used to prove the truth of any proposition
(c) if a proposition can be proven true by observation then it can be known to be true.
(d) knowing a proposition to be true is impossible only if it cannot be prove true by observation
(e) knowing a proposition to be true requires proving it true by observation
25. the publisher of a best-selling self-help book had, in some promotional material, claimed that it showed readers how to become exceptionally successful. of course everyone knows that no book can deliver to the many what by definition, must remain limited to the few exceptional success. thus although it is clear that the publisher knowingly made a false claim. doing so should not be considered unethical in this case
which one of the following principles if valid most strongly supports the reasoning above?
(a) knowingly making a false claim is unethical only if it is reasonable for people to accept the claim as true
(b) knowingly making a false claim is unethical if those making it derive a gain at the expense of those acting as if the claim were true.
(c) knowingly making a false claim is unethical in only those cases in which those who accept the claim as true suffer a hardship greater than the gain they were anticipating
(d) knowingly making a false claim is unethical only if there is a possibility that someone will act as if the claim might be true
(e) knowingly making a false claim is unethical in at least those cases in which for someone else to discover that the claim is false that person must have acted as if the claim were true
篇3:LSAT考试全真试题五SECTION2
section ii
time—35 minutes
25 questions
questions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage, after you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. the basic ingredients from which cement is made are both cheap and plentiful. materials as common as limestone and clay will do. nevertheless. the price of cement is influenced by the price of oil, because turning the basic ingredients into cement in high-temmerature kilns use large amounts of energy.
which one of the following can be logically inferred from the passage?
(a) oil is one of the basic ingredients that make up cement
(b) oil is a source of energy for some of the kilns used in the making of cement
(c) the higher the price of cement rises, the higher the price of clay rises
(d) whenever oil prices rise cement prices drop
(e) a given amount of cement costs no more than the total cost of its basic ingredients
2. many people do not understand themselves, nor do they try to gain self-understanding these people might try to understand others, but these attempts are sure to fail, because without self-understanding it is impossible to understand others. it is clear from this that anyone who lacks self-understanding will be incapable of understanding others.
the reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument
(a) mistakes something that is necessary to bring about a situation for something that in itself is enough to bring about that situation
(b) fails to take into account the possibility that not everyone wants to gain a thorough understanding of himself or herself
(c) blames people for something for which they cannot legitimately be held responsible
(d) makes use of the inherently vague term “self-understanding” without defining that term
(e) draws a conclusion that simply restates a claim given in support of that conclusion
questions 3-4
wife: the work of the artist who painted the portrait of my grandparents 50 years ago has become quite popular lately, so the portrait has recently become valuable. but since these sorts of artistic fads fade rapidly, the practical thing to do would be to sell the portrait while it is still worth something, and thereby enable our daughter to attend the college she has chosen.
husband: how could you make such a suggestion? that painting is the only thing you own that belonged to your grandparents. i don t think it s a very good painting, but it has great sentimental value. besides, you owe it to our daughter to keep it in the family as a link to her family s past
3. which one of the following principles, if established, does most to justify the husband s reply?
(a) gifts offered as sentimental tokens of affection should not be accepted if the recipient intends to sell them later for profit
(b) a beautiful work of art is more valuable than the money it could be sold for, whatever the amount
(c) it is more important for parents to provide their children with tangible links to the family s past than it is to enable them to attend the college of their choice.
(d) children and grandchildren have a duty to preserve family heirlooms only if they have promised their parents or grandparents that they would do so.
(e) providing one s children with an education is more important than providing them with material goods, even if the goods have sentimental value.
4. the husband uses which one of the following argumentative techniques in replying to the wife s suggestion?
(a) taking issue with the practicality of her suggestion
(b) questioning her aesthetie judgment
(c) claiming that the reasons she gives are based on emotions rather than on rational considerations
(d) asserting that the evidence she cites in support of her suggestion is false
(e) invoking a competing obligation that he judges to override her practical considerations
5. questions have arisen regarding the accuracy of the reports the university s archaeological museum issues on its sales and acquisitions for the year. to forestall controversy, this year s report is being reviewed by three archaeologists from other universities. since these archaeologists will be given full access to all documents on which the report is based, they will be able to determine whether it is indeed accurate.
the reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument
(a) does not specify whether the reviewers will have access to data about objects that have been in the museum s collection for many years
(b) provides no information regarding the size or quality of the archaeological museum s collection
(c) omits any mention of whether the museum s collection is on display or is available only to researchers
(d) omits any mention of whether the museum s collection is on display or is available only to researchers
(e) does not describe what will occur if the reviewers discover discrepancies between the report and the documents on which it was based
6. engineer: some people argue that the world s energy problems could be solved by mining the moon for helium-3, which could be used for fuel in fusion reactors. but this is nonsense. even if it were possible to mine the moon for helium-3, the technology needed to build viable fusion reactors that could use such fuel is at least 50 years away. if the world s energy problems are not solved before then, it will be too late to solve those problems.
the main point of the argument is that
(a) mining the moon for helium-3 is currently not feasible
(b) fusion reactors that are now being planned are not designed to use hilium-3 as fuel
(c) people who advocate mining the moon for helium-3 do not realize that fusion reactors could be designed to use fuels other than helium-3
(d) mining the moon for helium-3 is not a possible solution to the world s energy problems
(e) if the world s energy problems are not solved within the next 50 years, it will be too late to solve those problems.
篇4:LSAT考试全真试题一SECTION2
section ⅱ
time-35 minutes
26 questions
directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer, that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. after you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1.an office building at state university contains a concrete stairway, the carpet on which has become worn and frayed. despite numerous warnings by the occupational safety and health administration, the university has not replaced a burned-out light in the stairway. fred, a student, recently caught his heel in the torn carpet, tripped, and fell down the stairway. he was hospitalized for a severe concussion and other injuries. after his release from the hospital, he required much more medical attention and medication and had to withdraw from the university for a semester. he brings suit against the university.
which one of the following is the best ling of causal analysis for fred's attorney to pursue in the personal injury case?
(a) the concrete steps, because they were hard, worsened fred's injuries.
(b) the university is responsible for the condition of the carpet.
(c) the burned-out light constitutes negligence.
(d) the distance fred fell worsened his injuries.
(e) the occupational safety and health administration has no jurisdiction over the university.
2.research shows that exercise has a beneficial effect on health. after much testing with many different types of persons, it has been shown that, in most cases, exercise definitely helps to prevent illnesses caused by viruses. the common cold is caused by a virus. therefore._________
which one of the following is the best completion of the argument above?
(a) exercise alone will not prevent the common cold
(b) exercise is no more effective than antibiotics in preventing the common cold
(c) exercise is probably not effective in preventing colds caused by bacteria
(d) exercise helps the body to destroy invading viruses
(e) exercise may help to prevent the common cold
3.just a few years ago salmon could not survive in the oxygen-starved and polluted thames. nor could many other species. but now, after years of determined effort, the salmon have returned, and that is a sure sign that the river is pollution-free.
each of the following indicates a possible flaw in the reasoning in the passage above eexcept:
(a) the salmon that have returned may be of a strain that is unaffected by the pollutants.
(b) the pollution may have been reduced to a level at which the salmon can survive.
(c) oxygen starvation is often a consequence of pollution, and this may have killed the salmon.
(d) the salmon may have been killed by one particular pollutant, which has now been removed while others remain.
(e) there may still be pollution, but its nature may have changed to a form that saimon can tolerate.
4.the state's licensing procedures for day-care providers are inadequate.used to leave my son with a wonderful woman who kept a group of neighborhood children, but she quit rather than put up with the licensing paperwork. and a friend of mine tells me that he cannot recommend the day-care center that he uses, even though it is licensed, because the care providers are not interested in doing anything beyond meeting the minimum requirments of health and safety.
the author of the passage argues by
(a) providing examples to support two opposing positions
(b) basing a conciusion on specific cases
(c) disputing evidence cited by those with an opposing point of view
(d) predicting personal experience from a general principle
(e) using a generalization based on observation to undermine a theoretical principle
5.all 250 of the city's democratic ward leaders were polled about the number of registered republicans who became registered democrats during the year. from the reports of the 20 leaders who replied to the questionnaire, we know that altogether they received a total of 500 former republicans into the democratic party within the year. projecting from this sample, we conclude that at least 6,000 republicans became democrats during the year.
which one of the following statements, if true, most clearly undermines the conclusion?
(a) several years ago, 5,000 members of the republican party registered as democrats.
(b) the more than 90 percent of ward leaders not replying had no former republicans registering as democrats.
(c) because they were too busy, more than 90 percent of the ward leaders did not reply percent of the ward leaders did not reply
(d) a number of the newly registered democrats returned to the republican party at a later date.
(e) similar figures can be produced from past years for registrationchanges from the democratic party to the republican party
6.a linguist recently argued that all human languages must have a common origin because some concepts are universal; that is they appear in all languages. for example, all languages are capable of describing lightness and darkness.
which one of the following, if true would most senously weaken the argument?
a) the bernese language does not contain basic nouns like automobile and airplane.
(b) no one linguist could possibly speak all known languages.
(c) all speakers, regardless of their languages are confronted with similar stimuli like lightness and darkness.
(d) the similarity between human language and dolphin language has not been attributed to a common origin.
(e) some languages include concepts of which speakers of other languages are not even aware.
7.all psychiatrists are doctors. only psychiatrists were invited to the conference. all who were invited to the conference stayed at the hefford hote. therefore, only psychiatrists stayed at the hefford hotel.
which one of the following statements, if added as a premise to the argument, would make the conclusion valid?
(a) only those who were invited to the conference stayed at the hefford hotel.
(b) all who were invited to the conference were psychiatrists.
(c) all psychiatrists were invited to the conference.
(d) no one who was invited to the conference failed to stay at the hefford hotel.
(e) only doctors stayed at the hefford hotel.
question 8-9
a thing is “nauseous” if it makes one sick to the stomach; the unfortunate victim of this malaise is “nauseated” . the common misuse of “nauseous” can be illustrated with the following sentence: “when he sits too long, turns his head too abruptly, or walks any distance, he gets dizzy, loses balance, and becomes nauseous.” he doesn't become nauseous unless he turns other people's stomachs; he becomes nauseated. a person who is nauseated is no more nauseous than a person who has been poisoned is poisonous.
8.based on the passage above, which phrase does not provide a logical completion to the following sentence?
a person who is nauseated is no more nauseous than a person who has been_______.
(a) murdered is murderous
(b) corrupted is corruptible
(c) awed is awesome
(d) irritated is irritating
(e) scared is scary
9.the author's approach in the passage includes all of the following except
(a) explaining how a word is misused
(b) drawing an analogy
(c) providing an example
(d) relying on a word's ambiguous meaning
(e) defining key terms
10. therapy, whether physical or social, is a counterirritant that aids in that equilibrium of the physical organs that protects the central nervous system. whereas pleasure is a counterirritant (for example, sports, entertainment, and alcohol), comfort is the removal of irritants. both pleasure and comfort are strategies of equilibrium for the central nervous system.
it can be concluded from the statements above that the exile of a deviant member of a group can be
(a) therapeutic for the rest of the group
(b) irritating for the rest of the group
(c) pleasurable for the rest of the group
(d) comforting for the rest of the group
(e) counterirritating for the rest of the group
11. the situation has gotten worse. unless elizabeth goes i must go. but she will not to if i stay so we will both have to go.
what is the flaw in the reasoning above?
(a) the first claim, that the situation has gotten worse, is irrelevant.
(b) a possible course of action is overlooked
(c) it is assumed that staying is the same as not going.
(d) the conclusion refers to a possibility that is not explicitly referred to in any of the premises.
(e) insufficient information is given about the circumstances.
12. student x: i'm worried about failing the course.
student y: don't worry. as the professor said, any student who fails to submit a term paper will fail the course. so just make sure that you submit a term paper, and you will not fail the course.
which one of the following exhibits the same logical flaw as that exhibited in student y's remark?
(a) any restaurant that serves paella without saffron is not authentic so if the restaurant serves paella with turmeric instead of saffron, it is authentic.
(b) any native fishers who earn their livings by fishing the local rivers and lakes are worth hiring as guides. so a person who is a native fisher is worth hiring as a guide.
(c) anyone who can consistently bowl over 200 points per game should become a professional bowler. if you can consistently bowl over 200 points per game, you should become a professional bowler.
(d) any engineer who cannot solve the equation in a reasonable amount of time will not get a license. so if you are an engineer who can solve the equation in a reasonable amount of time, you will get a license.
(e) any cook who is in a hot kitchen will have the kitchen. if you are a cook in a kitchen that is hot, you will be forced to leave the kitchen.
13. trade protection is bad policy. take the case of the microcomputer industry. the united states government attempted to restore the computer chip market to united states manufacturers, who had ceased production in the face of an abundant supply of cheap chips from foreign manufacturers. under trade protection, it was expected that, as government-imposed quotas and excise taxes forced the price of foreign chips to rise, united states manufactures would reenter the market. they did, but at only slightly lower prices that the now-high prices of foreign firms. the lesson has been simple: trade protection means that united states manufactures gain while united states manufactures gain while united states consumers lose.
which one of the following is an assumption on which the author's argument relies?
(a) it is unreasonable to expect that government-imposed quotas and excise taxes will reduce prices for united states consumers.
(b) united states manufacturers of computer chips are more concerned with high profits that are foreign manufacturers.
(c) the united states government's primary purpose in trade protection is to restore markets and profits to united states manufacturers.
(d) with respect to trade protection, the microcomputer industry is representative of united states industry in general.
(e) the quality of the chips produced by united states manufacturers is better than the quality of the chips produced by foreign manufacturers.
questions 14-15
until now, this painting was believed to be a self portrait of the artist, but it probably is not. true, the heavy gold chain worn by the gentleman in the picture is similar to one presented to the artist by the queen of england after he had painted her portrait. but the sword hanging at the gentleman's hip suggests that he was a knight, a rank higher than any the artist ever attained.
14. the argument above depends on assuming that the self-portrait would
(a) include objects that are important to the artist
(b) not exaggerate the rank achieved by the artist
(c) be similar to portraits of others whom the artist had painted
(d) be verifiable only through the examination of objects in the painting
(e) not portray the artist engaged in the activity of painting
15. which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument?
(a) historians cannot determine whether the artist was ever knighted.
(b) the artist painted only one self-portrait in his entire life.
(c) several gentlemen of the artist's day wore heavy gold chains like the one in the painting.
(d) the gentleman in the painting resembles portraits of the artist painted by other artists.
(e) the artist was the only gentleman of his day who received a heavy gold chain from the queen of england.
16. colleges boast about the great sizes of their libraries. they quote figures in the hundreds of thousands of volumes, but how many books can a student read in four years-a thousand? what good, then, are all the rest?
which one of the following statements most accurately expresses the author's main point?
(a) college librarians do not have anything about which they can boast.
(b) no student can read more than a thousand books in four years.
(c) it is silly to boast about a library's size, regardless of whether the library is large or small.
(d) unused books are a waste of taxpayers' money.
(e) college libraries are unnecessarily large.
17. eli:according to many scientists the widespread production and use of chlorofluorocarbons (cfcs)-e.g., to provide coolant for air conditioners-inevitably leads to their escape into the atmosphere where they destroy the vital ozone layer. in my opinion, the continued use of cfcs by humans is like a harmful habit, which, if unchecked, could have disastrous effects on the user, namely self-destruction. the obvious and necessary cure, therefore, is a complete ban on cfc production and use.
mark: the cure you propose would kill, not save, the user. a ban on cfc production and use would cause the destruction of the air conditioning industry.
the source of mark, and eli's dispute is their lack of agreement on which one of the following terms?
(a) cure
(b) user
(c) ban
(d) production
(e) destruction
18. if there is a decrease in the number of homeless families, then either the number of available jobs has increased or else the cost of renting or purchasing housing has decreased. if the cost of renting or purchasing housing has decreased, then the supply of housing must be greater than the demand.
assume that there is a decrease in the number of homeless families. according to the passage, which one of the following statements. cannot be true?
(a) the number of jobs has been decreasing.
(b) the cost of renting or purchasing housing has been decreasing, and housing has been decreasing, and housing supply exceeds demand.
(c) the number of jobs has been increasing, and the cost of renting or purchasing housing has been stable.
(d) the number of jobs has been decreasing, the cost of renting or purchasing housing has been decreasing, and housing demand exceeds supply.
(e) the number of jobs has been increasing, the cost of renting or purchasing housing has been increasing, and housing supply exceeds demand.
19. everyone knew that if the team's star player were too badly injured to play in saturday's game, the team would lose. since the team won, the star player must have played
which one of the following is most similar in logie to the argument above?
(a) red spots on the feet are a symptom of a disease called borosis. this patient has green spots on his feet, therefore, he does not have borosis.
(b) if the frost comes late, the farmer has a good crop. because the frost was late, the farmer must have a good crop.
(c) the instructor in a course ruled that if a student received an a on either the term paper or the final exam, then the student would receive an a for the course. anne received an a on the term paper and a c on the final exam. therefore, anne received an a for the course.
(d) people in driving school realized that if pete had another auto accident, he would be expelled from the driving school, pete was not expelled from the driving school. therefore, he must not have had another auto accident.
(e) if swenson pays a $100 fine, he will not be expelled from the country club. because swenson has not been expelled, he must have paid the fine.
20. an examination of corruption provides the basis for rejecting the view that an exact science of society can ever be constructed. as with all other social phenomena that involve deliberate secrecy, it is intrinsically impossible to measure corruption, and this is not merely due to the fact that social science has not yet reached its goal, achievable to be sure, of developing adequate quantifying techniques. if people were ready to answer question about their embezzlements and bribes, it would their embezzlements and bribes, it would mean that these practices had acquired the character of legitimate, taxable activities and had ceased to be corrupt. in other words, corruption must disappear if it is to be measurable.
which one of the following most accurately states a hidden assumption that the author must make in order to advance the argument above
(a) some people believe that an exact science of society can be constructed.
(b) the primary purpose of an exact science to quantify and measure phenomena
(c) an intrinsic characteristic of social phenomena that involve deliberate secrecy is that they cannot be measured.
(d) an exact science of social phenomena that involve deliberate secrecy cannot be constructed.
(e) an exact science can be constructed only when the phenomena it studies can be measured.
question 21-22
this country does not need any more restrictions on pollution. in fact, we should abolish those that are currently on the books. in spite of various restrictions, pollution levels have actually increased over the past 40 years. most importantly, dramatic statistics show that, as pollution levels have increased over this period, the general health of the population has improved rather than deteriorated.
21. which one of the following assertions, if true, provides the most effective challenge to the author's conclusion?
(a) the general health of this country's population has improved over the past 40 years primarily because of new advances in medicine and nutrition, not because of pollution.
(b) there are several countries in the would in which there have been no restrictions on which there have been no restrictions on pollution over the past 40 years, and pollution levels have actually increased.
(c) similar statistics show that, in several countries, the general health of the population has improved over the past 40 years, while pollution levels have actually decreased.
(d) pollution levels would have increased even more than they have and the general health of the population would not have improved as much as it has without the restrictions that have been on the books.
(e) in the period prior to the past 40 years, pollution restrictions were nonexistent in this country and the general health of the population improved at a far slower rate than it did during the past 40 years.
22. the author concludes that there should be no restrictions on pollution partly because
(a) they are no longer needed to improve the general health of the population
(b) they reduce the positive effect that pollution has on the general health of the population
(c) statistics show that as pollution restrictions have increased so have pollution levels
(d) pollution has not yet reached levels that are detrimental to the health of the general population
(e) they are ineffective in lowering pollution levels.
23. in metropolitan areas, almost 60 percent of all fires are set by children, while in rural areas about 40 percent are a psychological survey discovered that all children who play with fire believe that there will be no consequences if their parents catch them doing it.
which one of the following inferences can be most reliably drawn from the passage above?
(a) most children who believe there will no consequences if they are discovered playing with fire do play with fire.
(b) parents who discover their children playing with fire will prevent those children from playing with fire in the future.
(c) if parents have successfully instilled in their children the belief that there will be consequences if they are caught playing with fire, these children have not been among those playing with fire.
(d) children who play with fire attach no sense of right or wrong to this action.
(e) most children who do not play with fire believe there will be consequences if their parents discover them playing with fire.
24. somewhere, somehow, what was once a perfectly good rule by which to live was twisted into the false and sinister idea that “money is the root of all evil” to the contrary, the proper use of money provides us with the food, clothes, health care, and shelter that we all need to sustain our lives.
the author's argument is logically flawed in that it
(a) uses examples that do not refute the generalization that all evil is rooted in money
(b) uses inappropriate examples to demonstrate the proper use of money
(c) ignores some of the evil things that money can buy
(d) fails to acknowledge that food, clothes, health care, and shelter can sometimes lead to evil
(e) fails to recognize that money can be sued for a lot of other good things besides sustenance
25. in a recent experiment, a high school english teacher interspersed real,commonly used proverbs with several nonsensical proverbial-sounding statements that he had made up. he then asked his students to evaluate all of the statements on the list. in general, the students found the bogus proverbs and the real proverbs to be equally full of wisdom and meaning,. the teacher concluded that proverbs attain their status as proverbs more through frequent usage than through their inherent wisdom.
which one of the following if true, would most effectively challenge the teacher's conclusion?
(a) some proverbs are used more frequently than others.
(b) there were more real proverbs than bogus proverbs in the list of statements.
(c) there are stylistic differences between proverbial and proverbial-sounding statements.
(d) some students view a statement in one way and other students view the same statement in a very different way.
(e) the students selected as evaluators were too inexperienced to judge the wisdom of the statements.
26. it is commonly accepted that we should be concerned about our own physical health. the desire to take responsibility for all aspects of our physical condition, however, produces a number of negative consequences. by focusing exclusively on our physical health, we tend to ignore out mental health. therefore, although we can derive physical benefits from our preoccupation with physical health, we often do so at the expense of our mental health.
the author establishes her position in the passage by doing which one of the following?
(a) she defends her position and then extencls it into a second area.
(b) she reveals a contradiction in a position commonly held to be correct.
(c) she supports a commonly held point of view by providing additional evidence
(d) she first states her position and then qualifies it with a number of concessions
篇5:LSAT考试考试全真试题三
关于LSAT考试考试全真试题三
LSAT考试考试全真试题三 SECTION 1
SECTION 1
Time-35 minutes
24 Questions
Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to araw a rough diagram. Choose the resoonse that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
Questions 1-6
Seven students-fourth-year students Kim and Lee; third-year students Pat and Robin: and second-year students Sandy, Tety and Val-and only those seven, are being assigned a rooms of equal size in a dormitory. Each room assigned must have either one or two or three students assigned to it and will accordingly be called either a single or a double or a triple. The seven students are assigned to moms in accordence with the following conditions:
Lio fourth-year student can be assigned to a triple.
No second-year student can be assigned to a single.
Lee and Pobin must not share the same room
Kim and Pat must share the same room.
1. Which one of the following is a combination of rooms to which the seven students could be assigned?
(A) two triples and one single
(B) one triple and four singles
(C) three doubles and a stngle
(D) two doubles and three singles
(E) one double and five singles
2. It the room assigned to Robin is a single, which one of the following could be true?
(A) There is exactly one double that has a second-year student assigned to it.
(B) Lee is assigned to a stngle.
(C) Sandy Fat and one other student are zseigned to a triple together.
(D) Lixactly three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles
(E) Exactly two of the rooms assigned to the students are doubles.
3. Which one of the following must be true?
(A) Lee is assigned to a single
(B) Pat sharts a double with another student
(C) Robin shares a double with another student
(D) Two of the second-year students share a double with each other
(E) Neither of the third-year students is assigned to a single
4. If Robin is assigred to a triple, which one of the following must be true?
(A) Lee is assigned to a single
(B) Two second-year students share a double with each other
(C) None of the rooms assigned to the students is a single
(D) Two of the rooms assigned to the students are singles.
(E) Three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles
5. If Terry and Val assigned to different doubles from each other, other, then it must be true of the students rooms that exactly
(A) one is a single
(B) two are singles
(C) two are doubles
(D) one is a triple
(E) two are triples
6. Which one of the following could be true?
(A) The two fourth-year students are assigned to singles.
(B) The two fourth-year students share a double with cach other.
(C) Lee shares a room with a second-year student
(D) Lee shares a room with a third-year student
(E) Pat shares a triple with two other students
Questions 7-11
A worker will colored light bulbs into a billboard equipped with exactly three light sockets, which are labled lights 1, 2, and 3. The worker has three green bulbs, three purple bulbs, and three yellow bulbs. Seiection of bulbs for the sockets is governed by the following conditions:
Whenever light 1 is purple, light 2 must be yellow.
Whenever light 2 is purple, light 1 must be green.
Whenever light 3 is either purple or yellow, light 2 must be purple.
7. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colors of light bulbs selected for lights 1, 2 and 3, respectively?
(A) green, green, yellow
(B) purple, green, green
(C) purple, purple, green
(D) yellow, purple, green
(E) yellow, yellow, yellow
8. If light 1 is yellow, then any of the following can be true, EXCEPT:
(A) Light 2 is green.
(B) Light 2 is purple
(C) Light 3 is green
(D) Light 3 is purple
(E) Light 3 is yellow
9. There is exactly one possible color sequence of the three lights if which one of the following is true?
(A) Light 1 is purple.
(B) Light 2 is purple.
(C) Light 2 is yellow
(D) Light 3 is purple.
(E) Light 3 is yellow
10. If no green bulbs are selected, there are exactly how many possible different color sequences of the three lights?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
(E) five
11. If no two lights are assigned light bulbs that are the same color as each other, then which one of the following could be true?
(A) Light I is green, and light 2 is purple.
(B) Light I is green, and light 2 is yellow.
(C) Light I is purple, and light 2 is yellow.
(D) Light I is yellow, and light 2 is green.
Questions 12-17
An attorney is scheduling interviews with witnesses for a given week. Monday through Saturday. Two full consecutive days of the week must be reserved for interviewing hostile withesses. In addition, nonhostile witnesses Q, R, U, X, Y, and Z will each be interviewed exactly once for a full morning or afternoon. The only witnesses who will be interviewed simultaneously with each other are Q and R. The following conditions apply.
X must be interviewed on Thursday morning
Q must be interviewed at some time before X.
U must be interviewed at some time before R
Z must be interviewed at some time after X and at some time after Y.
12. Which one of the following is a sequence, from first to last, in which the nonhostile witnesses could be interviewed?
(A) Q with R, U, X, Y, Z
(B) Q, U, R, X, with Y, Z
(C) U, X, Q, with R, Y, Z
(D) U, Y, Q, with R, X, Z
(E) X, Q, with U, Z, R, Y
13, Which one of the following is acceptable as a complete schedule of witnesses for Tuesday morning. Tuesday afternoon, and Wednesday morning,respectively?
(A) Q, R, none
(B) R, none, Y
(C) U, Y, none
(D) U, Y, none
(E) Y, Z, none
14.If Y is interviewed at some time after X, which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday
(E) Saturday
15. If R is interviewed at some time after Y which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Friday
16. If on Wednesday afternoon and on Monday the attomey conducts no interviews, which one of the following be true?
(A) Q is interviewed on the same day as U
(B) R is interviewed on the same day as Y
(C) Y is interviewed on the same day as U
(D) Y is interviewed on the same day as Wednesday
(E) Z is interviewed on the same day as Friday
17. If Z is interviewed on Saturday morning which one of the following can be true?
(A) Wednesday is a day reserved for interiewing hostile witnesses.
(B) Friday is a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses.
(C) R is interviewed on Thursday
(D) U is interviewed on Tuesday
(E) Y is interviewed at some time before Thursday
Questions 18-24
During a four-week period, cach of seven previously unadvertised products-G, H, J, K, L, M, and O-will be advertised. A different pair of these products will be advertised each week. Exactly one of the products will be a member of two of these four pairs. The following constraints must be observed:
J is not advertised during a given week unless H is advertised during the immediately precceding week.
The product that is advertised during two of the weeks is advertised during week 4 but is not advertised during week 3
G is not advertised during a given week unless either J or else O is also advertised that week.
K is advertised during one of the first two weeks
O is one of the products advertised during week 3
18. Which one of the following could be the schedule of advertisernents?
(A) week 1: G, J; week 2: K, L; week 3: O, M; week 4: H, L
(B) week 1: H, K; week 2: J, G; week 3: O, L; week 4: M, K
(C) week 1: H, K; week 2: J, M; week 3: O, L; week 4: G, M
(D) week 1: H, L; week 2: J, M; week 3: O, G; week 4: K, L
(E) week 1: K, M; week 2: H, J; week 3: O, G; week 4: L, M
19. Which one of the following is a pair of products that CANNOT be advertised during the same week as each other?
(A) H and k
(B) H and M
(C) J and O
(D) K and L
(E) L and M
20. Which one of the following must be advertised during week 2?
(A) G
(B) J
(C) K
(D) L
(E) M
21. Which one of the following CANNOT be the product that is advertised during two of the weeks?
(A) G
(B) H
(C) K
(D) L
(E) M
22. If L is the product that is advertised during two of the weeks, which one of the following is a product that must be advertised during one of the weeks in which L is advertised
(A) G
(B) H
(C) J
(D) K
(E) M
23. Which one of the following is a product that could be advertised in any of the four weeks?
(A) H
(B) J
(C) K
(D) L
(E) O
24. Which one of the following is a pair of products that could be advertised during the same week as each other
(A) G and H
(B) H and J
(C) H and O
(D) K and O
(E) K and O
(F) M and O
篇6:LSAT考试全真题二SECTION2
section ⅱ
time-35 minutes
24 questions
directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages for some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should not make assumptions that are bycommonsense standards implausible superfluous or incompatible with the passage. after you have chosen the best
1.the city's center for disease control reports that the rabies eoidemic is more serious now than it was two years ago: two years ago less than 25 percent of the local raccoon population was infected, whereas today the infection has spread to more than 50 percent of the raccoon population. however, the newspaper reports that whereas two years ago 32 cases of rabid raccoons were confirmed during a 12-month period in the past 12 months only 18 cases of rabid raccoons were confirmed.
which one of the following if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy between the two reports?
(a) the number of cases of rabies in wild animals other than raccoons has increased in the past 12 months.
(b) a significant proportion of the raccoon population succumbed to rabies in the year before last.
(c) the symptoms of distemper another disease to which raccoons are susceptible are usually identical to those of rabies.
(d) since the outbreak of the epidemic, raccoons, which are mormally nocturnal have increasingly been seen during daylight hours
(e) the number of confirmed cases of rabid raccoons in neighboring cities has also decreased over the past year
2.recently, reviewers of patent applications decided against granting a patent to a university for a genetically engineered mouse developed for laboratory use in studying cancer. the reviewers argued that the mouse was a new variety of animal and that rules governing the granting of patents specifically disallow patents for new animal varieties.
which one of the following if true most weakens the patent feviewers argument?
(a) the restrictions the patent reviewers cited pertain only to domesticated farm animals.
(b) the university's application for a patent for the genetically engineered mouse was the first such patent application made by the university
(c) the patent reviewers had reached the same decision on all previous patent requess for new animal varieties.
(d) the patent reviewers had in the past approved patents for genetically engineered plant varieties.
(e) the patent reviewers had previously decided against granting patents for new animal varieties that were developed through conventional breeding programs rather than through genetic engineering.
questions 3-4
although water in deep aquifers does not contain disease-causing bacteria, when public water supplies are arawn from deep aquifers chlorine is often added to the water as a disinfectant because contamination can occur as a result of flaws in pipes or storage tanks. of 50 municipalities that all pumped water from the same deep aquifer 30 chlorinated their water and 20 did not. the water in all of the municipalities met the regional government's standards for cleanliness yet the water supplied by the 20 municipalities that did not chlorinated had less bacterial contamination than the water supplied by the municipalities that added chlorine.
3.which one of the following can properly be concluded from the information given above?
(a) a municipality's initial decision whether or not to use chlorine is based on the amount of bacterial contamination in the water source
(b) water in deep aquifers does not contain any bacteria of any kind
(c) where accessible deep aquifers are the best choice as a source for a municipal water supply
(d) the regional government's standards allow some bacteria in municipal water supplies
(e) chlorine is the least effective disinfecting agent
4.which one of the following, if true, most helps explain the difference in bacterial contamination in the two groups of municipalities?
(a) chlorine is considered by some experts to be dangerous to human health, even in the small concentrations used in municipal water supplies.
(b) when municipalities decide not to chlorinate their water supplies, it is usually because their citxens have voiced objections to the taste and smell of chlorine.
(c) the municipalities that did not add chlorine to their water supplies also did not add any of the other available water disinfectants which are more expensive than chlorine.
(d) other agents commonly added to public water supplies such as fluoride and sodium hydroxide were not used by any of the 50 municipalities
(e) municipalities that do not chlorinate their water supplies are subject to stricter regulation by the regional government in regard to pipes and water tanks than are municipalities that use chlorine.
5.the population of songbirds throughout england has decreased in recent years. many people explain this decrease as the result of an increase during the same period in the population of magpies, which eat the eggs and chicks of songbirds.
which one of the following, if true, argues most strongly against the explanation reported in the passage?
(a) official records of the population of birds in england have been kept for only the past 30 years.
(b) the number of eggs laid yearly by a female songbird varies widely according to the songbird's species.
(c) although the overall population of magpies has increased, in most areas of england in which the songbird population has decreased the number of magpies has remained stable.
(d) the population of magpies has increased because farmers no longer shoot or trap magpies to any greal extent, though farmers.
(e) although magpies eat the eggs and chicks of songbirds, magpies diets consist of a wide variety of other foods as well.
6.the introduction of symbols for numbers is an event lost in prehistory, but the earliest known number symbols, in the form of simple grooves and scratches on bones and stones date back 20,000 years or more. nevertheless, since it was not until 5,500 years ago that systematic methods for writing numerais were invented, it was only then that any sort of computation became possible.
which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?
(a) grooves and scratches found on bones and stones were all made by people, and none resulted from natural processes.
(b) some kinds of surfaces upon which numeric symbols could have been made in the period before 5,500 years ago were not used for that purpose.
(c) grooves and scratches inscribed on bones and stones do not date back to the time of the earliest people.
(d) computation of any sort required a systematic method for writing numerals.
(e) systematic methods for writing numerals were invented only because the need for computation arose.
7.politician: now that we are finally cleaning up the industrial pollution in the bay, we must start making the bay more accessible to the public for recreational purposes.
reporter: but if we increase public access to the bay, it will soon become polluted again.
politician: not true. the public did not have access to the bay, and it got polluted. therefore, if and when the public is given access to the bay, it will not get polluted.
which one of the following most closely parallels the flawed pattern of reasoning in the politician's reply to the reporter?
(a) if there had been a full moon last night, the tide would be higher than usual today. since the tide is no higher than usual, there must not have been a full moon last night.
(b) the detective said that whoever stole the money would be spending it conspicuously by now. jones is spending money conspicuously, so he must be the thief.
(c) when prisoners convicted of especially violent crimes were kept in solitary confinement, violence in the prisons increased. therefore, violence in the prisons will not increase if such prisoners are allowed to mix with fellow prisoners.
(d) to get a driver's license, one must pass a written test. smith passed the written test, so she must have gotten a driver's license.
(e) in order to like abstract art, you have to understand it . therefore, in order to understand abstract art, you have to like it.
8.because learned patterns of behavior, such as the association of a green light with “go” or the expectation that switches will flip up for “on” become deeply ingrained designers should make allowances for that fact in order not to produce machines that are inefficient or dangerous.
in which one of the following situations is the principle expressed most clearly violated?
(a) manufacturers have refused to change the standard order of letters on the typewriter keyboard even though some people who have over learned to type find this arrangement of letters bewildering
(b) government regulations require that crucial instruments in airplane cockpits-be placed in exactly the same array in all commercial aircraft
(c) automobile manufacturers generally design for all of their automobiles a square or oblong lgnition key and a round or oval luggage compartment key.
(d) the only traffic signs that are triangular in shape are “yield” signs.
(e) on some tape recorders the “start” button is red and the “stop” button is yellow.
9.from 1973 to 1989 total energy use in this country increased less than 10percent. however, the use of electrical energy in this country during this same period grew by more than 50 percent as did the gross national product-the total value of all goods and services produced in the nation.if the statements above are true, then which one of the following must also be true?
(a) most of the energy used in this country in 1989 was electrical energy.
(b) from 1973 to 1989 there was a decline in the use of energy other than electrical energy in this country.
(c) from 1973 to 1989 there was an increase in the proportion of energy use in this country that consisted of electrical energy use
(d) in 1989 electrical energy constituted a larger proportion of the energy used to produce the gross national product than did any other form of energy.
(e) in 1973 the electrical energy that was produced constituted a smaller proportion of the gross national product than did all other forms of energy combined.
10. a fundamental illusion in robotics is the belief that improvements in robots will liberate humanity from “hazardous and demeaning work” englineers are designing only those types of robots that can be properly maintained with the least expensive, least skilied human labor possible. therefore, robots will not eliminate demeaning work-only substitute one type of demeaning work for another.
the reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it
(a) ignores the consideration that in a competitive business environment some jobs might be eliminated if robots are not used in the manufacturing process
(b) assumes what it sets out to prove, that robots create demeaning work.
(c) does not specify whether or not the engineers who design robots consider their work demeaning
(d) attempts to support its conclusion by an appeal to the emotion of fear, which is often experienced by people faced with the prospect of losing their jobs to robots
(e) fails to address the possibility that the amount of demeaning work eliminated by robots might be significantly greater than the amount they create
11. if the needle on an industrial sewing machine becomes badly worn, the article being sewn can be ruined. in traditional apparel factories, the people who operate the sewing machines monitor the needles and replace those that begin to wear out. industrial sewing operations are becoming increasingly automated, however, and it would be inefficient for a factory to hire people for the sole purpose of monitoring needles. therefore a sophisticated new acoustic device that detects wear in sewing machine needles is expected to become standard equipment in the automated apparel factories of the future.
which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above?
(a) in automated apparel factories, items will be ruined by faulty needles less frequently than happens in traditional apparel factories
(b) in the automated apparel factories of the future each employee will perform only one type of task.
(c) traditional apparel factories do not use any automated equipment.
(d) the needles of industrial sewing machines wear out at unpredictable rates.
(e) as sewing machine needles become worn, the noise they make becomes increasingly loud.
questions 12-13
alexander: the chemical waste dump outside our town should be cleaned up immediately. admittedly, it will be very costly to convert that site into woodland, but we have a pressing obligation to redress the harm we have done to local forests and wildlife.
teresa: but our town's first priority is the health of its people. so even if putting the dump there was environmentally disastrous, we should not spend our resources on correcting it unless it presents a significant health to people. if it does, then we only need to remove that hazard.
12. teresa's statement most closely contorms to which one of the following principles?
(a) environmental destruction should be redressed only if it is in the economic interest of the community to do so.
(b) resources should be allocated only to satisfy goals that have the highest priority
(c) no expense should be spared in protecting the community's health.
(d) environmental hazards that pose slight health risks to people should be rectified if the technology is available to do so.
(e) it is the community as a whole that should evaluate the importance of eliminating various perceived threats to public health.
13. which one of the following is the point at issue between alexander and teresa?
(a) whether the maintenance of a chemical waste dump inflicts significant damage on forests and wildlife
(b) whether it is extremely costly to clean up a chemical waste dump in order to replace it by a woodland
(c) whether the public should be consulted in determining the public health risk posed by a chemical waste dump
(d) whether the town has an obligation to redress damage to local forests and wildlife if that damage poses no significant health hazard to people
?(e) whether destroying forests and wildlife in order to establish a chemical waste dump amounts to an environmental disaster
14. in 1980, country a had a per capita gross domestic product (gdp) that was $5,000 higher than that of the european economic community. by 1990,the difference, when adjusted for inflation, had increased to $6,000. since a rising per capita gdp indicates a rising average standard of living the average standard of living in country a must have risen between 1980 and 1990.
which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(a) between 1980 and 1990, country a and the european economic community experienced the same percentage increase in population.
(b) between 1980 and 1990 the average standard of living in the european economic community fell.
(c) some member countries of the european economic community had during the 1980s, a higher average standard of living than country a.
(d) the per capita gdp of the european economic community was not lower by more that $1,000 in 1990 than it had been in 1980.
(e) in 1990, no member country of the european economic community had a per capita gdp higher than that of country a
15. municipal officials originally estimated that it would be six months before municipal road crews could complete repaving a stretch of road. the officials presumed that private contractors could not finish any sooner. however, when the job was assigned to a private contractor, it was completed in just 28 days.
which one of the following if true does most to resolve the discrepancy between the time estimated for completion of the repaving job and the actual time taken by the private contractor?
(a) road repaving work can only be done in the summer months of june, july and august
(b) the labor union contract for road crews employed by both municipal agencies and private contractors stipulates that emplyoyees can work only eight hours a day five day a wee, before being paid overtime
(c) many road-crew workers for private contractors have previously worked for municipal rodad crews and vice versa
(d) private contractors typically assign 25 workers to each road-repaving job site whereas the number assigned to municipal road crews is usually 30.
(e) municipal agencies must conduct a lengthy bidding process to procure supplies after repaving work is ordered and before they can actually start work whereas private contractors can oblain supplies readly as needed.
16. researchers in south australia estimate changes in shark populations inhabiting local waters by monitoring what is termed the “catch per unit effort” (cpue). the cpue for any species of shark is the number of those sharks that commercial shark-fishing boats catch per hour for each kilometer of gill net set out in the water. since 1973 the cpue for a particular species of shark has remained fairly constant. therefore, the population of that species in the waters around south australia must be at approximately its 1973 level.
which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
(a) the waters around south australia are the only area in the world where that particular species of shark is found
(b) the sharks that are the most profitable to catch are those that tend to remain in the same area of ocean year after year and not migrate far from where they were born.
(c) the last time the pta petitioned for a 15 percent fare increase, the petition was denied.
(d) the pta's budget deficit is 40 percent larger this year than it was last year.
(e) the pta's bus drivers recently won a ew contract that guarantees them a significant cash bonus each time they work the late-night shifts
19. the volunteer for literacy program would benefit if dolores takes victors place as director ,since dolores if far more skillful than victor is at securing the kind of financial support the program needs and dolores does not have victor's propensity for alienzting program's most dedicated volunteers.
the pattern of reasoning in the argument above is most closely paralleled in which one of the following?
(a) it would be more convenient for dominique to take a bus to school than to take the subway, since the bus stops closer to her house than does the subway and unlike the subway the bus goes directly to the school.
(b) joshua's interest would be better served by taking the bus to get to his parent's house rather than by taking an airplane, since his primary concern is to travel as cheaply as possible and taking the bus is less expensive than going by airplane.
(c) belinda will get to the concert more quickly by subway than by taxi since the concert takes place on a friday evening and on friday evenings traffic near the concert hall is exceptionally heavy.
(d) anita would benefit financially by taking the train to work rather than driving her car since when she drives she has to pay parking fees and the daily fee for parking a car is higher than a round-trip train ticket.
(e) it would be to fred's advantage to exchange his bus tickets for train tickets since he needs to arrive at his meeting before any of the other participants and if he goes by bus at least one of the other participants will arrive first.
20. students from outside the province of markland, who in any given academic year pay twice as much tuition each as do students from markland, had traditionally accounted for at least two-thirds of the enrollment at centra markland college. over the past 10 years academic standards at the college have risen and the proportion of students who are not marklanders has dropped to around 40 percent.
which one of the following can be properly inferred from the statements above?
(a) if it had not been for the high tuition paid by students from outside markland, the college could not have improved its academic standards over the past 10 years.
(b) if academic standards had not risen over the past 10 year students who are not marklanders would still account for at least two-thirds of the college's enrollment.
(c) over the past 10 year the number of students from markland increased and the number of students from outside markland decreased
(d) over the past 10 years academic standards at central markland college have risen by more than academic standards at any other college in markland.
(e) if the college's per capita revenue from tuition has remained the same tuition fees have increased over the past 10 years.
21. several years ago, as a measure to reduce the population of gypsy moths, which depend on oak leaves for food, entomologists introduced into many oak forests a species of fungus that is poisonous to gypsy moth caterpillars. since then the population of both caterpillars and adult moths has significantly declined in those areas. entomologists have concluded that the decline is attributable to the presence of the poisonous fungus.
which one of the following. if true most strongly supports the conclusion drawn by the entomologists?
(a) a strain of gypsy moth whose caterpillars are unaffected by the fungus has increased its share of the total gypsy moth population
(b) the fungus that was introduced to control the gypsy moth population is poisonous to few insect species other than the gypsy moth
(c) an increase in number of both gypsy moth caterpillars and gypsy moth adults followed a drop in the number of some of the species that prey on the moths.
(d) in the past several years, air pollution and acid rain have been responsible for a substantial decline in oak tree populations.
(e) the current decline in the gypsy moth population in forests where the fungus was introduced is no greater than a decline that occurred concurrently in other forests.
22. director of personnel: ms. tours has formally requested a salary adjustment on the grounds that she was denied merit raises to which she was entitled. since such grounds provide a possible basis for adjustments, an official response is required. ms. tours presents compelling evidence that her job performance has been both excellent in itself and markedly superior to that of others in her department who were awarded merit raises. her complaint that she was treated unfairly thus appears justified. nevertheless her request should be denied. to raise ms. tours's salary because of her complaint would jeopardize the integrity of the firm's merit-based reward system by sending the message that employees can get their salaries raised if they just complain enough.
the personnel director's reasoning is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it
(a) fails to consider the possibility that ms. tours's complainl could be handled on an unofficial basis
(b) attempts to undermine the persuasiveness of ms. tours's evidence by characterizing it as “mere complaining”
(c) sidesteps the issue of whether superior job performance is a sultable basis for awarding salary increases
(d) ignores the possibility that some of the people who did receive merit increases were not entitled to them
(e) overlooks the implications for the integrity of the firm's merit-based reward system of denying ms. tours's request
23. s: people who are old enough to fight for their country are old enough to vote for the people who make decisions about war and peace. this government clearly regards 17 year olds as old enough to fight, so it should acknowledge their right to vote.
t: your argument is a good one only to the extent that fighting and voting are the same kind of activity. fighting well requires strength. muscular coordination and in a modern army instant and automatic response to orders. performed responsibly, voting, unlike fighting is essentially a deliberative activity requiring reasoning power and knowledge of both history and human nature.t responds to s's argument by
(a) clting evidence overlooked s that would have supported s's conclusion
(b) calling into question s's understanding of the concept of rights
(c) showing that s has ignored the distinction between having an obligation to do that thing
(d) challenging-the truth of a claim on which s's conclusion is based
(e) arguing for a conclusion opposite to the one drawn by s
24. the role of the uplandian supreme court is to protect all human rights against abuses of government power. since the constitution of uplandia is not excplicit about all human rights the supreme court must sometimes resort to principles outside the explicit provisions of the constitution in justifying its decisions. however, human rights will be subject to the whim of whoever holds judicial power unless the supreme court is bound to adhere to a single objective standard, namely, the constitution. therefore, nothing but the explicit provisions of the constitution can be used to justify the court's decisions. since these conclusions are inconsistent with each other, it cannot be true that the role of the uplandian supreme court is to protect all human rights against abuses of government power.
the reasoning that leads to the conclusion that the first sentence in the passage is false is flawed because the argument
(a) ignores date that offer reasonable support for a general claim and focuses on a single example that argues against that claim
(b) seeks to defend a view on the grounds that the view is widely held and the decisions based on that view are often accepted as correct
(c) rejects a claim as false on the grounds that those who make that claim could profit if that claim is accepted by others
(d) makers an unwarranted assumption that what is true of each member of a group taken separately is also true of the group as a whole
(e) concludes that a particular premise is false when it is equally possible for that premise to be true and some other premise false
篇7:LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION3
section iii
time—35 minutes
25 questions
directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. after you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. everyone sitting in the waiting room of the school s athletic office this morning at nine o clock had just registered for a beginners tennis clinic. john, mary, and teresa were all sitting in the waiting room this morning at nice o clock. no accomplished tennis player would register for a beginners tennis clinic.
if the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?
(a) none of the people sitting in the school s athletic office this morning at nine o clock had ever played tennis.
(b) everyone sitting in the school s athletic office this morning at nine o clock registered only for a beginners tennis clinic.
(c) john, mary, and teresa were the only people who registered for a beginners tennis clinic this morning.
(d) john, mary, and teresa were the only people sitting in the waiting room of the school s athletic office this morning at nine o clock
(e) neither john nor teresa is an accomplished tennis player.
2. most people who ride bicycles for pleasure do not ride until the warm weather of spring and summer arrives. yet it is probably more effective to advertise bicycles earlier in the year. most bicycles are purchased in the spring, but once shoppers are ready to shop for a bicycle, they usually have already decided which brand and model of bicycle they will purchase. by then it is generally too late to induce them to change their minds.
the main point of the argument is that
(a) bicycle advertisements are probably more effective if they appear before the arrival of warm spring weather
(b) most bicycle purchasers decide on the brand and model of bicycle that they will buy before beginning to shop for a bicycle
(c) more bicycles are purchassed in the spring than at any other time of year.
(d) in general, once a bicycle purchaser has decided which bicycle he or she intends to purchase, it is difficult to bring about a change in that decision
(e) spring and summer are the time of year in which bicycle riding as a leisure activity is most popular
3. during 1991 the number of people in the town of bayburg who received municipal food assistance doubled, even though the number of people in bayburg whose incomes were low enough to qualify for such assistance remained unchanged.
which one of the following, if true, most helps to resove the apparent discrepancy in the information above?
(a) in 1990 the bayburg town council debated whether or not to alter the eligibility requirements for the food assistance program but ultimately decided not to change them.
(b) in 1990 the bayburg social service department estimated the number of people in bayburg who might be eligible for the food assistance program and then informed the bayburg town council of the total amount of assistance likely to be needed.
(c) during 1991 many residents of a nearby city lost their jobs and moved to bayburg in search of work.
(d) during 1991 the number of applicants for food assistance in bayburg who were rejected on the basis that their incomes were above the maximum allowable limit was approximately the same as it had been in 1990.
(e) during 1991 bayburg s program of rent assistance for low-income tenants advertised widely and then informed all applicants about other assistance programs for which they would be qualified.
4. campaigning for election to provincial or state office frequently requires that a candidate spend much time and energy catering to the interests of national party officials who can help the candidate to win office. the elected officials who campaign for reelection while they are in office thus often fail to serve the interests of their local constituencies.
which one of the following is an assumption made-by the argument?
(a) catering to the interests of national party officials sometimes conflicts with serving the interests of a provincial or state official s local constituencies.
(b) only by catering to the interests of national party officials can those who hold provincial or state office win reelection.
(c) the interests of iocal constituencies are well served only by elected officials who do not cater to the interests of national party officials.
(d) officials elected to provincial or state office are obligated to serve only the interests of constituents who beling to the same party as do the officials.
(e) all elected officials are likely to seek reelection to those offices that are not limited to one term.
5. since professor smythe has been head of the deparment the most distinguished member of the faculty has resigned, fewer new courses have been developed, student has dropped, and the reputation of the department has gone down. these facts provide conclusive evidence that professor smythe was appointed to undermine the department.
the reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argumetn
(a) overlooks the fact that something can have the reputation for being of poor quality without being of poor quality
(b) bases a general claim on a few exceptional instances
(c) assumes that because an action was followed by a change, the action was undertaken to bring about that change.
(d) fails to distinguish between a decline in quantity and a decline in quality
(e) presupposes what it purports to establish
6. books about architectural works. unless they are not intended for a general audience, ought to include discussions of both the utility and the aesthetic appeal of each of the buildings they consider. if they do not, they are flawed. morton s book on italian baroque palaces describes these palaces functional aspects, but fails to mention that the main hall of a palace he discusses at length has a ceiling that is one of the truly breathtaking masterpieces of western art.
if the statements above are true, it would be necessary to establish which one of the following in order to conclude that morton s book is flawed?
(a) morton s deseription of the palaces utility is inaccurate
(b) morton s book does not discuss aspects of the palaces other than utility and aesthetic appeal
(c) morton s book is intended for a general audience.
(d) the passage discussing the palace plays a very important role in helping to establish the overall argument of morton s book.
(e) the palace discussed at length is one of the most aesthetically important of those treated in morton s book.
7. of all the photographs taken of him at his wedding there was one that john and his friends sharply disagreed about. his friends all said that this particular picture did not much resemble him, but john said that on the contrary it was the only photograph that did.
which one of the following, if true about the photograph most helps to explain john s disagreement with his friends?
(a) it, unlike the other photographs of john, showed him in the style of dress he and his friends usually wear rather than the formal clothes he wore at the ceremony.
(b) it was the only photograph taken of john at his wedding for which the photographer had used a flash.
(c) it was a black-and-white photograph, whereas the other photographs that showed john were mostly color photographs.
(d) it was unique in showing john s face reflected in a mirror, the photographer having taken the photograph over john s shoulder.
(e) it was one of only a few taken at the wedding that showed no one but john.
questions 8-9
eva: a “smart highway” system should be installed, one that would monitor areawide traffic patterns and communicate with computers in vehicles or with programmable highway signs to give drivers information about traffic congestion and alternate routes. such a system, we can infer, would result in improved traffic flow in and around cities that would do more than improve drivers tempers; it would decrease the considerable loss of money and productivity that now results from traffic congestion.
lines: there are already traffic reports on the radio. why would a “smart highway” system be any better?
8. eva s argument depends on the assumption that
(a) on “smart highways” there would not be the breakdowns of vehicles that currently cause traffic congestion
(b) traffic lights, if coordinated by the system, would assure a free flow of traffic
(c) traffic flow in and around cities is not now so congested that significant improvement is impossible
(d) the type of equipment used in “smart highway” systems would vary from one city to another
(e) older wehicles could not be fitted with equipment to receive signals sent by a “smart highway” system
9. if eva responded to luis by saying that the current one-minute radio reports are too short to give a sufficient description of overall patterns of traffic congestion, which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen luis s challenge?
(a) bad weather, which radio stations report, would cause traffic to slow down whether or not a “smart highway” system was in operation.
(b) it would be less costly to have radio stations that give continual, lengthier traffic reports than to install a “smart highway” system.
(c) radio reports can take note of congestion once it occurs, but a “smart highway” system could anticipate and forestall it in many instances.
(d) the proposed traffic monitoring would not reduce the privacy of drivers.
(e) toll collection booths, which constiture traffic bottlenecks, would largely be replaced in the “smart highway” system by electronic debiting of commuters accounts while traffic proceeded at full speed.
10. the terms “sex” and “gender” are often used interchangeably. but “sex” more properly refers to biological differences of male and female, while “gender” refers to society s construction of a system that identifies what is masculine and feminine. unlike the set of characteristies defining biological sex, the set of traits that are associated with gender does not sort people into two nonoverlapping groups. the traits characterize people in a complex way, so that a person may have both “masculine” and “feminine” traits.
which one of the following statements best expresses a main point of the argument?
(a) distinctions based on gender are frequently arbitrary.
(b) gender traits are not determined at birth.
(c) masculine gender traits are highly correlated with maleness.
(d) the terms “sex” and “gender” are not properly interchangeable.
(e) society rather than the individual decides what is considered proper behavior.
11. raising the tax rate on essential goods—a traditional means of increasing govemment revenues—invariably turns low-and middle-income taxpayers against the government. hence government officials have proposed adding a new tax on pruchases of luxury items such as yachts, private planes, jewels, and furs. the officials in government revenues while affecting only the wealthy individuals and corporations who can afford to purchase such items.
the answer to which one of the following questions would be most relevant in evaluating the accuracy of the government officials prediction?
(a) will luxury goods be taxed at a higher rate than that at which essential goods are currently taxed?
(b) will be revenues generated by the proposed tax be comparable to those that are currently being generated by taxes on essential goods?
(c) will sales of the luxury items subject to the proposed tax occur at current rates once the proposed tax on luxury items has been passed?
(d) will the proposed tax on luxury items win support for the government in the eyes of low-and middle-income taxpayers?
(e) will purchases of luxury items by corporations account for more of the revenue generated by the proposed tax than will purchases of luxury items by wealthy individuals?
12. in a study of the relationship between aggression and television viewing in nursery school children, many interesting interactions among family styles, aggression, and television viewing were found. high aggression occurred in both high-viewing and low-viewing children and this seemed to be related to parental lifestyle. high-achieving. competitive, middle-class parents, whose children did not watch much television had more aggressive children than parents who planned their lives in an organized, child-centered way, which included larger amounts of television viewing.
which one of the following conclusions is best supported by the passage?
(a) low levels of television viewing often lead to high levels of aggression among children.
(b) the level of aggression of a child cannot be predicted from levels of television viewing alone.
(c) if high-achieving. competitive parents were more child-centered, their children would be less aggressive
(d) high levels of television viewing can explain high levels of aggression among children only when the parents are not child-centered.
(e) parental lifestyle is less important than the amount of television viewing in determining the aggressiveness of children.
13. one of the effects of lead poisoning is an inflammation of the optic nerve, which causes those who have it to see bright haloes around light sources. in order to produce the striking yellow effects in his “sunflowers” paintings, van gogh used naples yellow, a pigment containing lead. since in his later paintings, van gogh painted bright haloes around the stars and sun, it is likely that he was suffering from lead poisoning caused by ingesting the pigments he used.
which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?
(a) in van gogh s later paintings he painted some things as he saw them.
(b) van gogh continued to use paints containing lead after having painted the “sunflowers” paintings,.
(c) van gogh did not have symptoms of lead poisoning aside from seeing bright haloes around light sources.
(d) the paints van gogh used in the “sunflowers” paintings had no toxic ingredients other than lead.
(e) the effects of naples yellow could not have been achieved using other pigments.
questions 14-15
politician: the mandatory jail sentences that became law two years ago for certain crimes have enhanced the integrity of our system of justice, for no longer are there two kinds of justice, the kind dispensed by lenient judges and the kind dispensed by severe ones.
pulic advocate: but with judges stripped of discretionary powers, there can be no leniency even where it would be appropriate. so juries now sometimes acquit a given defendant solely beacuse the jurors feel that the mandatory sentence would be too harsh. those juries, then, do not return an accurate verdict on the defendant s guilt. this is why it is imperative that the legislation instituting mandatory jail sentences be repealed.
14. the public advocate responds to the politician s argument by doing which one of the following?
(a) trying to show that the politician s conclusion merely paraphrases the politician s evidence
(b) claiming that the politician s evidence, properly analyzed, has no bearing on the conclusion the politician derives from it.
(c) arguing that leniency is not a trait of individuals but that, rather, it is a property of certain kinds of decisions.
(d) arguing that an analysis of the consequences of certain legislation undermines the politician s conclusion
(e) charging that the politician exaggerated the severity of a problem in order to justify a sweeping solution
15. which one of the following principles, if valid, provides the politician with the strongest basis for countering the public advocate s argument?
(a) juries should always consider whether the sum of the evidence leaves any reasonable doube concerning the defendant s guilt, and in all cases in which it does, they should acquit the defendant
(b) a system of justice should clearly define what the specific actions are that judges are to perform within the system.
(c) asystem of justice should not require any legal expertise on the part of the people selected to serve on juries.
(d) changes in a system of justice in response to some undesirable feature of the system should be made as soon as possible once that feature has been recognized as undesirable.
(e) changes in a system of justice that produce undesirable consequences should be reversed only if it is not feasible to ameliorate those undesirable consequences through furhter modification.
16. researchers studying artificial sweeteners have long claimed that the perception of sweetness is determined by the activation of a single type of receptor on the tongue, called a sweetness receptor. they have also claimed that any given individual molecule of substance can activate at most one sweetness receptor and that the fewer molecules that are required to activate a receptor, the sweeter that substance will be perceived to be, now the researchers claim to have discovered a substance of which only one molectule is needed to activate any sweetness receptor.
which one of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by the researchers claims, if all of those claims are true?
(a) the more sweetness receptors a person has on his or her tongue, the more likely it is that that person will find sweet sensations pleasurable
(b) in sufficient quantity. the molecules of any substance can activate a sweetness receptor
(c) no substance will be found that is perceived to be sweeter than the substance the researchers have discovered.
(d) a substance that does not activate a sweetness receptor will activate a taste receptor of another type.
(e) the more molecules of a substance that are required to activate a single sweetness receptor. the more bitter that substance will be perceived to be.
17. an editorial in the grandbury daily herald claims that grandburg s voters would generally welcome the defeat of the political party now in control of the grandburg city council. the editorial bases its claim on a recent survey that found that 59 percent of grandburg s registered voters think that the party will definitely be out of power after next year s city council elections.
which one of the following is a principle that, if established, would provide the strongest justification for the editorial s conclusion?
(a) the way voters feel about a political party at a given time can reasonably be considered a reliable indicator of the way they will continue to feel about that party, barring unforeseeable political developments.
(b) the results of surveys that gauge current voter sentiment toward a given political party can legitimately be used as the basis for making claims about the likely future prospects of that political party.
(c) an increase in ill-feeling toward a political party that is in power can reasonably be expected to result in a corresponding increase in support for rival political parties.
(d) the proportion of voters who expect a given political possibility to be realized can legitimately be assumed to approximate the proportion of voters who are in favor of that possibility being realized.
(e) it can reasonably be assumed that registered voters who respond to a survey regarding the outcome of a future election will exercise their right to vote in that election.
18. prolonged exposure to nonionizing radiation—electromagnetic radiation at or below the frequency of visible light—increases a person s chances of developing soft-tissue cancer. electric power lines as well as such electrical appliances as electric blankets and video-display terminals are sources of nonionizing radiation.
which one of the following conclusions is best supported by the statements above?
(a) people with short-term exposure to nonionizing radiation are not at risk of developing soft-tissue cancers.
(b) soft-tissue cancers are more common than other cancers.
(c) soft-tissue cancers are frequently cured spontaneously when sources of nonionizing radiation are removed from the patient s home.
(d) certain electrical devices can pose health risks for their users.
(e) devices producing electromagnetic radiation at frequencies higher than that of visible light do not increase a person s risk of developing soft-tissue cancers.
19. in the first decade following the founding of the british labour party, the number of people regularly voting for labour increased fivefold. the number of committed labour voters increased a further fivefold during the party s second decade. since the increase was thus the same in the first as in the second decade, the often-made claim that the labour party gained move voters in the party s second decade than in its first is clearly false.
the reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument
(a) fails to specify dates necessary to evaluate the truth of the conclusion, even though the argument depends on distinguishing between two time periods
(b) draws a conclusion that cannot be true if all the data advanced in its support are true
(c) relies on statistical evidence that, strictly speaking, is irrelevant to establishing the conclusion drawn
(d) fails to allow for the possibility that the policy positions advocated by the labour party changed during the period in question
(e) overlooks the possibility that more elections were held in one of the two decades than were held in the other
questions 20-21
a number of seriously interested amateur astronomers have tested the new exodus refractor telescope. with it, they were able to observe in crisp detail planetary features that were seen only as fuzzy images in their 8-inch (approximately 20-centimeter) newtonian telescopes, even though the 8-inch telescopes, with their wider apertures, gather more light than the 4-inch (approximately 10-centimeter) exodus. given these amateur astronomers observational findings, any serious amateur astronomers ought to choose the exodus if she or he is buying a telescope for planetary observation.
20. the argument proceeds by
(a) evaluating the credibility of claims made by a particular group
(b) detailing the ways in which a testing situation approximates the conditions of ordinary use
(c) placing a phenomenon in a wider context in order to explain it
(d) supporting a recommendation to a group on the basis of the experience of a subset of that group
(e) distinguishing between the actual reasons why a certain group did a particular thing and the best reasons for doing that thing.
21. which one of the following most seriously weakens the argument?
(a) telescopes of certain types will not perform well unless they have been precisely collimated a delicate adjustement requriring deftness.
(b) image quality is only one of several different factors that, taken together, should determine the choice of a telescope for planetary observation.
(c) many serious amateur astronomers have no intention of buying a telescope for planetary observation.
(d) the comparisons made by the amateur astronomers were based on observations made during several different observation sessions.
(e) the substance used to make the lenses of exodus telescopes differs from that used in the lenses of other telescopes.
22. anatomical bilateral symmetry is a common trait. it follows, therefore, that it confers survival advantages on organisms. after all, if bilateral symmetry did not confer such advantages, it would not be common.
the pattern of reasoning in which one of the following arguments is most similar to that in the argument above?
(a) since it is sawyer who is negotiating for the city government, it must be true that the city takes the matter seriously. after all, if sawyer had not been available, the city would have insisted that the negotiations be deferred.
(b) clearly, no candidate is better qualified for the job than trumbull. in fact, even to suggest that there might be a more highly qualified candidate seems absurd to those who have seen trumbull at work.
(c) if powell lacked superior negotiating skills, she would not have been appointed arbitrator in this case. as everyone knows, she is the appointed arbitrator, so her negotiating skills are detractors notwithstanding bound to be superior.
(d) since varga was away on vacation at the time, it must have been rivers who conducted the secret negotiations. any other scenario makes little sense, for rivers never does the negotiating unless varga is unavailable.
(e) if wong is appointed arbitrator, a decision will be reached promptly. since it would be absurd to appoint anyone other than wong as arbitrator, a prompt decision can reasonably be expected.
23. electrical engineers have repeatedly demonstrated that the best solid-state amplifiers are indistinguishable from the best vacuum-tube amplifiers with respect to the characteristies commonly measured in evaluating the quality of an amplifier s musical reproduction. therefore, those music lovers who insist that recorded music sounds better when played with the best vacuumtube amplifier must be imagining the difference in quality that they claim to hear.
which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
(a) many people cannot tell from listening to it whether a recording is being played with a very good solid-state amplifier or a very good vacuum-tube amplifier.
(b) the range of variation with respect to the quality of musical reproduction is greater for vacuumtube amplifiers than for solid-state amplifiers.
(c) some of the characteristies that are important in determining how music sounds to a listener cannot be measured.
(d) solid-state amplifiers are more compact, use less power, and generate less heat than vacuum-tube amplifiers that produce a comparable volume of sound.
(e) some vacuum-tube amplifiers are clearly superior to some solid-state amplifiers with respect to the laboratory to evaluate the quality of an amplifier s musical reproduction.
24. explanation must be distinguished from justification every human action potentially has an explanation that is with sufficient knowledge it would be possible to give an accurate description of the causes of that action. an action is justified only when the person performing the action has sufficient reasons for the action. according to many psychologists, even when there is a justification for an action, that justification often forms no part of the explanation. the general principle, however, is that only an action whose justification, that is, the reasons for the action, forms an essential part of its explanation is rational.
if the statements in the passage are correct, which one of the following can be properly concluded form them?
(a) when a human action is justified, that action has no explanation.
(b) if there are any reasons among the causes of an action, then that action rational
(c) some psychologists believe that the justification for an action never forms an essential part of its explanation
(d) there are actions whose causes cannot be discovered
(e) if any human actions are rational then reasons must sometimes be causes of actions
25. at the company picnic all of the employees who participated in more than four of the scheduled events, and only those employees were eligible for the raffle held at the end of the day. since only a small proportion of the employees were eligible for the raffle, most of the employees must have participated in fewer than four of the scheduled events.
which one of the following arguments exhibits a flawed pattern of reasoning most like that exhibited by the argument above?
(a) only third-and fourth-year students are allowed to keep cars on campus. since one quarter of the third-year students keep cars on campus and one half of the fourth-year students keep cars on campus, it must be that fewer third-year students than fourth-year students keep cars on campus.
(b) only those violin students who attended extra rehearsal sessions were eligible for selection as solists. since two of the violin students were selected as soloists, those two must have been the only violin students who attended the extra sessions
(c) the only students honored at a special banquet were the band members who made the dean s list last semester. since most the band members were honored, most of the band members must have made the dean s list.
(d) all of the members of the service club who volunteered at the hospital last summer were biology majors. since ten of the club members are biology majors, those ten members must have volunteered at the hospital last summer
(e) all of the swim team members who had decreased their racing times during the season were given awards that no other members were given. since fewer than half the team members were given such awards, the racing times of more than half the team members must have increased during the season.
篇8:LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION4
section iv
time—35 minutes
27 questions
directions: each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. for some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corn conding space on your answer sheet.
musicoiogists concerned with the “london pianoforte school,” the group of composers, pedagogues, pianists, publishers, and builders who contributed to the development of the piano in london
(5) at the turn of the nineteenth century have long encountered a formidable obstacle in the general unavailability of music of this “school” in modern scholarly editions, indeed, much of this repertory has more or less vanished from our historical
(10) consciousness. granted, the sonatas and gradus ad parnassum of muzio clementi and the nocturnes of john field have remained farniliar enough (though more often than not in editions lacking scholarly rigor), but the work of other leading representatives, like
(15) johann baptist cramer and jan ladislav dussek, has eluded serious attempts at revival.
nicholas temperley s ambitious new anthology decisively overcomes this deficiency. what underscores the intrinsic value of temperley s editions
(20) is that the anthology reproduces nearly all of the original music in facsimile. making available this cross section of english musical life—some 800 works by 49 composers—should encourage new critical perspectives about how piano music evolved in
(25) england, an issue of considerable relevance to our understanding of how piano music developed on the european continent, and of how, finally, the instrument was transformed from the fortepiano to what we know today as the piano.
(30) to be sure, the london pianoforte school itself calls for review. “school” may well be too strong a word for what was arguably a group unified not so much by stylistic principles or aesthetic creed as by the geographical circumstance that they worked at
(35) various times in london and produced pianos and piano music for english pianos and english markets. indeed, temperley concedes that their “variety may be so great as to cast doubt on the notion of a school. ”
the notion of a school was first propounded by
(40) alexander ringer, who argued that laws of artistic survival forced the young, progressive beethoven to turn outside austria for creative models, and that he found inspiration in a group of pianists connected with clementi in london. ringer s proposed london
(45) pianoforte school did suggest a circumscribed and fairly unified group—for want of a better term, a school—of musicians whose influence was felt primarily in the decades just before and after 1800. after all, beethoven did respond to the advances of the
(50) broadwood piano—its reinforced frame, extended compass, triple strining, and pedsals, for example—and it is reasonable to suppose that london pianists who composed music for such an instrument during the critical phase of its development exercised no small
(55) degree of influence on continental musicians. nevertheless, perhaps the most sensible approach to this issue is to define the school by the period (c, 1766-1873) during which it flourished, as temperley has done in the anthology.
1. which one of the following most accurately states the author s main point?
(a) temperley has recently called into question the designation of a group of composers. pedagogues, pianists, publishers, and builders as the london pianoforte school
(b) temperley s anthology of the music of the london pianoforte school contributes significantly to an understanding of an influential period in the history of music.
(c) the music of the london pianoforte school has been revived by the publication of temperley s new anthology.
(d) primary sources for musical manuserrpts provide the most reliable basis for musicological research.
(e) the development of the modern piano in england influenced composers and other musicians throughout europe.
2. it can be inferred that which one of the following is true of the piano music of the london pianoforte school?
(a) the nocturnes of john field typify the london pianoforte school style.
(b) the gradus ad parnassum of muzio clementi is the best-known work of these composers.
(c) no original scores for this music are exant
(d) prior to temperley s edition, no attempts to issue new editions of this music had been made.
(e) in modern times much of the music of this school has been little known even to musicians.
3. the author mentions the sonatas of muzio clementi and the nocturnes of john field as examples of which one of the following?
(a) works by composers of the london pianoforte school that have been preserved in rigorous scholarly editions
(b) works that are no longer remembered by most people
(c) works acclaimed by the leaders of the london pianoforte school
(d) works by composers of the london pianoforte school that are relatively wellknown
(e) works by composers of the london pianoforte school that have been revived by temperley in his anthology
4. which one of the following, if true, would most clearly undermine a portion of ringer s argument as the argument is described in the passage?
(a) musicians in austria composed innovative music for the broadwood piano as soon as the instrument became available.
(b) clementi and his followers produced most of their compositions between 1790 and 1810.
(c) the influence of continental musicians is apparent in some of the works of beethoven.
(d) the pianist-composers of the london pianoforte school shared many of the same stylistic principles.
(e) most composers of the london pianoforte school were born on the continent and were drawn to london by the work of clementi and his followers.
5. it can be inferred that the author uses the word “advances” (line 49) to refer to
(a) enticements offered musicians by instrument manufacturers
(b) improvements in the structure of a particular instrument
(c) innovations in the forms of music produced for a particular instrument
(d) stylistic elaborations made possible by changes in a particular instrument
(e) changes in musicians opinions about a particular instrument
6. it can be inferred from the passage as a whole that the author s purpose in the third paragraph is primarily to
(a) cast doubt on the usefulness of temperley s study of the london pianoforte school
(b) introduce a discussion of the coherency of the london pianoforte school
(c) summarize ringer s argument about the london pianoforte school
(d) emphasize the complex nature of the musicological elements shared by members of the london pianoforte school.
(e) identify the unique contributions made to music by the london pianoforte school
7. the author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(a) explaining the influence of the development of the pianoforte on the music of beethoven
(b) describing tempetley s view of the contrast between the development of piano music in england and the development of plano music elsewhere in europe
(c) presenting temperley s evaluation of the impact of changes in piano construction on styles and forms of music composed in the era of the london pianoforte school
(d) considering an altermnative theory to that proposed by ringer concerning the london pianoforte school
(e) discussing the contribution of temperley s anthology to what is known of the history of the london pianoforte school
8. it can be inferred that temperley s anthology treats the london pianoforte school as
(a) a group of pianist-composers who shared certain stylistic principles and arustic creeds
(b) a group of people who contributed to the development of piano music between 1766 and 1873
(c) a group of composers who influenced the music of beethoven in the decades just before and just after 1800
(d) a series of compositions for the pianoforte published in the decades just before and just after 1800
(e) a series of compositions that had a significant influence on the music of the continent in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries
what is “law”? by what processes do judges arrive at opinions. those documents that justify their belief that the “law” dictates a conclusion one way or the other? these are among the oldest questions in
(5) jurisprudence, debate about which has traditionally been dominated by representatives of two schools of thought: proponents of natural law, who see law as intertwined with a moral order independent of society s rules and mores, and legal positivists, who see law
(10) solely as embodying the commands of a society s ruling authority
since the early 1970s, these familiar questions have received some new and surprising answers in the legal academy. this novelty is in part a consequence of the
(15) increasing influence there of academic disciplines and intellectual traditions previously unconnected with the study of law. perhaps the most influential have been the answers given by the law and economics school. according to these legal economists, law consists and
(20) ought to consist of those rules that maximize a society s material wealth and that abet the efficient operation of markets designed to generate wealth. more controversial have been the various answers provided by members of the critical legal studies movement
(25) according to whom law is one among several cultural mechanisms by which holders of power seek to legitimate their domination. drawing on related arguments developed in anthropology, sociology, and history, the critical legal scholars contend that law is an
(30) expression of power, but not, as held by the positivists, the power of the legitimate sovereign government. rather, it is an expression of the power of elites who may have no legitimate authority, but who are intent on preserving the privileges of their race, class, or gender.
(35) in the mid-1970s, james boyd white began to articulate yet another interdiseiplinary response to the traditional questions, and in so doing spawned what is now known as the law and literature movement white has insisted that law, particularly as it is
(40) interpreted in judicial opinions, should be understood as an essentially literary activity. judicial opinions should be read and evaluated not primarily as political acts or as atte mpts to maximize society s wealth through efficient rules, but rather as artistic
(45) performances. and like all such performances, white argues, each judicial opinion attempts in its own way to promote a particular political or ethical value.
in the recent justice as translation, white argues that opinion-writing should be regarded as an act of
(50) “translation,” and judges as “translators.” as such, judges find themselves mediating between the authoritative legal text and the pressing legal problem that demands resolution. a judge must essentially “re-constitute” that text by fashioning a new one, which
(55) is faithful to the old text but also responsive to and informed by the conditions, constraints, and aspirations of the world in which the new legal problem has arisen.
9. which one of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(a) within the last few decades, a number of novel approaches to jurisprudence have defined the nature of the law in diverse ways.
(b) within the last few decades, changes in society and in the number and type of cases brought to court have necessitated new methods of interpreting the law.
(c) of the many interdisciplinary approaches to jurisprudence that have surfaced in the last tow decades, the law and literature movement is the most intellectually coherent.
(d) the law and literature movement, first articulated by james boyd white in the mid-1970s, represents a synthesis of the many theories of jurisprudence inspired by the social sciences
(e) such traditional legal scholars as legal positivists and natural lawyers are increasingly on the defensive against attacks from younger, more progressive theorists.
10. according to the passage, judicial opinions have been described as each of the following except:
(a) political statements
(b) arcane statements
(c) economic statements
(d) artistic performances
(e) acts of translation
11. which one of the following statements is most compatible with the principles of the critical legal studies movement as that movement is described in the passage?
(a) laws governing the succession of power at the death of a head of state represent a synthesis of legal precedents, specific situations, and the values of lawmakers
(b) laws allowing income tax deductions for charitable contributions, though ostensibly passed by lawmakers, were devised by and are perpetuated by the rich
(c) laws governing the tariffs placed on imported goods must favor the continuation of mutually beneficial trade arrangements, even at the expense of long-standing legal precedent.
(d) laws governing the treatment of the disadvantaged and powerless members of a given society are an accurate indication of that society s moral state.
(e) laws controlling the electoral processes of a representative democracy have been devised by lawmakers to ensure the continuation of that governmental system.
12. which one of the following does the passage mention as a similarity between the critical legal studies movement and the law and literature movement?
(a) both offer explanations of how elites maintain their hold on power.
(b) both are logical extensions of either natural law or legal positivism.
(c) both see economic and political primacy as the basis of all legitimate power
(d) both rely on disciplines not traditionally connected with the study of law.
(e) both see the practice of opinion-writing as a mediating activity.
13. which one of the following can be inferred from the passage about the academic study of jurisprudence before the 1970s?
(a) it was concerned primarily with codifying and maintaining the privileges of elites.
(b) it rejected theories that interpreted law as an expression of a group s power.
(c) it seldom focused on how and by what authority judges arrived at opinions.
(d) it was concerned primarily with the study of law as an economic and moral agent.
(e) it was not concerned with such disciplines as anthropology and sociology.
14. proponents of the law and literature movement would most likely agree with which one of the following statements concerning the relationship between the law and judges written opinions?
(a) the once-stable relationship between law and opinion-writing has been undermined by new and radical theoretical developments
(b) only the most politically conservative of judges continue to base their opinions on natural law or on legal positivism.
(c) the occurrence of different legal situations requires a judge to adopt diverse theoretical approaches to opinion-writing.
(d) different judges will not necessarily write the same sorts of opinions when confronted with the same legal situation.
(e) judges who subseribe to divergent theories of jurisprudence will necessarily render divergent opinions.
15. which one of the following phrases best describes the meaning of “re-constitute” as that word is used in line 54 of the passage?
(a) categorize and rephrase
(b) investigate and summarize
(c) interpret and refashion
(d) paraphrase and announce
(e) negotiate and synthesize
16. the primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) identify differing approaches
(b) discount a novel trend
(c) advocate traditional methods
(d) correct misinterpretations
(e) reconcile seeming inconsistencies
since the early 1920s, most petroleum geologists have favored a biogenic theory for the formation of oil. according to this theory, organic matter became buried in sediments, and subsequent conditions of temperature
(5) and pressure over time transformed it into oil.
since 1979 an opposing abiogenic theory about the origin of oil has been promulgated. according to this theory, what is now oil began as hydrocarbon compounds within the earth s mantle (the region
(10) between the core and the crust) during the formation of the earth. oil was created when gasses rich in methanc, the lightest of the hydrocarbons, rose from the mantle through fractures and fauhs in the crust, carrying a significant amount of heavier hydrocarbons with them.
(15) as the gases encountered intermittent drops in pressure, the heavier hydrocarbons condensed, forming oil, and were deposited in reservoirs throughout the crust, rock regions deformed by motions of the crustal plates provided the conduits and fracures necessary for the
(20) gases to rise through the crust.
opponents of the abiogenic theory charge that hydrocarbons could not exist in the mantle, because high lemperatures would destroy or break them down. advocates of the theory, however, point out that other
(25) types of carbon exist in the mantle: unoxidized carbon must exist there, because diamonds are formed within the mantle before being brought to the surface by eruptive processes. proponents of the abiogenic theory also point to recent experimental work that suggests
(30) that the higher pressures within the mantle tend to offset the higher temperatures, allowing hydrocarbons, like unoxidized carbon, to continue to exist in the mantle.
if the abiogenic theory is correct, vast undiscovered
(35) reservoirs of oil and gas—undiscovened because the biogenic model precludes their existence—may in actuality exist. one company owned by the swedish government has found the abiogenic theory so persuasive that it has started exploratory drilling for gas
(40) or oil in a granite formation called the siljan ring—not the best place to look for gas or oil if one belives they are derived from organic compounds, because granite forms from magma (molten rock) and contains no organic sediments. the ring was formed about 360
(45) million years ago when a large meteorite hit the 600-million-year-old granite that forms the base of the continental crust. the impact fractured the granite, and the swedes believe that if oil comes from the mantle, it could have risen with methane gas through this now
(50) permeable rock. fueling their optimism further is the fact that prior to the start of drilling, methane gas had been detected rising through the granite.
17. which one of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(a) although the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil is derived from the conventional biogenic theory, it suggests new types of locations for oil drilling.
(b) the small number of drilling companies that have responded to the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil reflects the minimal level of acceptance the theory has met with in the scientific community.
(c) although the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil fails to explain several enigmas about oil reservoirs, it is superior to the conventional biogenic theory.
(d) although it has yet to receive either support or refutation by data gathered from a drilling project, the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil offers a plausible alternative to the conventional biogenic theory.
(e) having answered objections about higher pressures in the earth s core, proponents of the new abiogenic theory have gained broad acceptance for their theory in the scientific community.
18. which one of the following best describes the function of the third paragraph?
(a) it presents a view opposed to a theory and points out an internal contradiction in that opposing view.
(b) it describes a criticism of a theory and provides countervailing evidence to the criticism.
(c) it identifies a conflict between two views of a theory and revises both views.
(d) it explains an argument against a theory and shows it to be a valid criticism.
(e) it points out the correspondence between an argument against one theory and arguments against similar theories.
19. the passage suggests that the opponents of the abiogenic theory mentioned in the third paragraph would most probably agree with which one of the following statements?
(a) the formation of oil does not involve the condensation of hyarocarbons released from the earth s mantle.
(b) large oil reserves are often found in locations that contain small amounts of organic matter.
(c) the eruptive processes by which diamonds are brought to the earth s surface are similar to those that aid in the formation of oil.
(d) motions of the crustal plates often create the pressure necessary to transform organic matter into oil.
(e) the largest known oil reserves may have resulted from organic matter combining with heavier hydrocarbons carried by methane gas.
20. which one of the following is most analogous to the situation described in the final paragraph?
(a) a new theory about the annual cycles of breeding and migration of the monarch butterfly has led scientists to look for similar patterns in other butterfly species.
(b) a new theory about the stage at which a star collapses into a black hole has led astronomers to search for evidence of black holes in parts of the universe where they had not previously searched.
(c) a new theory about how the emission of sulfur dioxide during coal-burning can be reduced has led several companies to develop desulfurization systems.
(d) a new theory about photosynthesis has convinced a research team to explore in new ways the various functions of the cell membrane in plant cells.
(e) a new theory about the distribution of metals in rock formations has convinced a silver-mining company to keep different types of records of its operations.
21. according to the passage all of the following are true of the siljan ring except:
(a) it was formed from magma.
(b) it does not contain organic sediments.
(c) its ring shape existed 500 million years ago.
(d) methane gas has been detected rising through it
(e) it was shaped from the granite that makes up the base of the continental crust.
most studies of recent southeast asian immigrants to the united states have focused on their adjustment to life in their adopted country and on the effects of leaving their homelands. james tollefson s alien
(5) winds examines the resettlement process from a different perspective by investigating the educational programs offered in immigrant processing centers. based on interviews transcripts from classes, essays by immigrants, personal visits to a teacher-training unit,
(10) and official government documents. tollefson relies on an impressive amount and variety of documentation in making his arguments about processing centers educational programs.
tollefson s main contention is that the emphasis
(15) placed on immediate employment and on teaching the values, attitudes, and behaviors that the training personnel think will help the immigrants adjust more easily to life in the united states in often counterproductive and demoralizing. because of
(20) concerns that the immigrants be self-supporting as soon as possible, they are trained almost exclusively for low-level jobs that do not require english proficiency. in this respect. tollefson claims. the processing centers suit the needs of employers more than they suit the
(25) long-term needs of the immigrant community. tolletson also detects a fundamental flaw in the attempts by program educators to instill in the immigrants the traditionally western principles of self-sufficiency and individual success. there efforts often
(30) have the effect of undermining the immigrants sense of community and, in doing so, sometimes isolate them from the moral support and even from business opportunities afforded by the immigrant community. the programs also encourage the immigrants to shed
(35) their cultural traditions and ethnic identity and adopt the lifestyles, beliefs, and characteristies of their adopted country if they wish to enter fully into the national life.
tollefson notes that the ideological nature of these
(40) educational programs has roots in the turn-of-the-century educational programs designed to assimilate european immigrants into united states society. tollefson provides a concise history of the assimilationist movement in immigrant education, in
(45) which european immigrants were encouraged to leave behind the ways of the old world and to adopt instead the principles and practices of the new world.
tollefson ably shows that the issues demanding real attention in the educational programs for southeast
(50) asian immigrants are not merely employment rates and government funding, but also the assumptions underpinning the educational values in the programs. he recommends many improvements for the programs, including giving the immigrants a stronger voice in
(55) determining their needs and how to meet them, redesigning the curricula, and emphasizing long-term language education and job training over immediate employment and the avoiding of public assistance, unfortunately, though, tollefson does not offer enough
(60) concreate solutions as to how these reforms could be carried out, despite his own descriptions of the complicated bureaucratic nature of the programs.
22. which one of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(a) tollefson s focus on the economic and cultural factors involved in adjusting to a new country offers a significant departure from most studies of southeast asian immigration.
(b) in his analysis of educational programs for southeast asian immigrants. tollefson fails to acknowledge many of the positive effects the programs have had on immigrants lives.
(c) tollefson convincingly blames the philosophy underlying immigrant educational programs for some of the adjustment problems afflicting southeast asian immigrants.
(d) tollefson s most significant contribution is his analysis of how southeast asian immigrants overcome the obstacles they encounter in immigrant educational programs.
(e) tollefson tractes a gradual yet significant change in the attitudes held by processing center educators toward southeast asian immigrants.
23. with which one of the following statements concerning the educational programs of the immigration centers would tollefson most probably agree?
(a) although the programs offer adequate job training, they offer inadequate english training.
(b) some of the programs attempts to improve the earning power of the immigrants cut them off from potential sources of income.
(c) inclusion of the history of immigration in the united states in the programs currcula facilitates adjustment for the immigrants.
(d) immigrants would benefit if instructors in the programs were better prepared to teach the curricula developed in the teacher-training courses.
(e) the programs curricula should be redesigned to include greater emphasis on the shared values. beliefs, and practices in the united states.
24. which one of the following best describes the opinion of the author of the passage with respect to tollefson s work?
(a) thorough but misguided
(b) innovative but incomplete
(c) novel but contradictory
(d) illuminating but unappreciated
(e) well documented but unoriginal
25. the passage suggests that which one of the following is an assumption underlying the educational approach in immigrant processing centers?
(a) there is a set of values and behaviors that if adopted by immigrants, facilitate adjustment to united states society
(b) when recent immigrants are self-supporting rather than supported by public assistance, they tend to gain english proficiency more quickly
(c) immediate employment tends to undermine the immigrants sense of community with each other
(d) long-term success for immigrants is best achieved by encouraging the immigrants to maintain a strong sense of community.
(e) the principles of self-sufficiency and individual success are central to southeast asian culture and ethnicity.
26. which one of the following best describes the function of the first paragraph of the passage?
(a) it provides the scholarly context for tollefson s study and a description of his methodology
(b) it compares tollefson s study to other works and presents the main argument of his study.
(c) it compares the types of documents tollefson uses to those used in other studies
(d) it presents the accepted meory on tollefson s topic and the method by which tollefson challenges it
(e) it argues for the analytical and technical superiority of tollefson s study over other works on the topic
27. the author of the passage refers to tollefson s descriptions of the bureaucratic nature of the immigrant educational programs in the fourth paragraph most probably in order to
(a) criticize tollefson s decision to combine a description of the bureaucracies with suggestions for improvement.
(b) emphasize the author s disappointment in tollefson s overly general recommendations for improvements to the programs.
(c) point out the mony of tollefson concluding his study with suggestions for drastic changes in the programs
(d) support a contention that tollefson s recommendations for improvements do not focus on the real sources of the programs problems
(e) suggest a parallel between the complexity of the bureaucracies and the complexity of tollefson s arguments
篇9:LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION1
section 1
time-35 minutes
24 questions
directions: each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. in answering some of the questions, it may be useful to araw a rough diagram. choose the resoonse that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
questions 1-6
seven students-fourth-year students kim and lee; third-year students pat and robin: and second-year students sandy, tety and val-and only those seven, are being assigned a rooms of equal size in a dormitory. each room assigned must have either one or two or three students assigned to it and will accordingly be called either a single or a double or a triple. the seven students are assigned to moms in accordence with the following conditions:
lio fourth-year student can be assigned to a triple.
no second-year student can be assigned to a single.
lee and pobin must not share the same room
kim and pat must share the same room.
1. which one of the following is a combination of rooms to which the seven students could be assigned?
(a) two triples and one single
(b) one triple and four singles
(c) three doubles and a stngle
(d) two doubles and three singles
(e) one double and five singles
2. it the room assigned to robin is a single, which one of the following could be true?
(a) there is exactly one double that has a second-year student assigned to it.
(b) lee is assigned to a stngle.
(c) sandy fat and one other student are zseigned to a triple together.
(d) lixactly three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles
(e) exactly two of the rooms assigned to the students are doubles.
3. which one of the following must be true?
(a) lee is assigned to a single
(b) pat sharts a double with another student
(c) robin shares a double with another student
(d) two of the second-year students share a double with each other
(e) neither of the third-year students is assigned to a single
4. if robin is assigred to a triple, which one of the following must be true?
(a) lee is assigned to a single
(b) two second-year students share a double with each other
(c) none of the rooms assigned to the students is a single
(d) two of the rooms assigned to the students are singles.
(e) three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles
5. if terry and val assigned to different doubles from each other, other, then it must be true of the students rooms that exactly
(a) one is a single
(b) two are singles
(c) two are doubles
(d) one is a triple
(e) two are triples
6. which one of the following could be true?
(a) the two fourth-year students are assigned to singles.
(b) the two fourth-year students share a double with cach other.
(c) lee shares a room with a second-year student
(d) lee shares a room with a third-year student
(e) pat shares a triple with two other students
questions 7-11
a worker will insert colored light bulbs into a billboard equipped with exactly three light sockets, which are labled lights 1, 2, and 3. the worker has three green bulbs, three purple bulbs, and three yellow bulbs. seiection of bulbs for the sockets is governed by the following conditions:
whenever light 1 is purple, light 2 must be yellow.
whenever light 2 is purple, light 1 must be green.
whenever light 3 is either purple or yellow, light 2 must be purple.
7. which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colors of light bulbs selected for lights 1, 2 and 3, respectively?
(a) green, green, yellow
(b) purple, green, green
(c) purple, purple, green
(d) yellow, purple, green
(e) yellow, yellow, yellow
8. if light 1 is yellow, then any of the following can be true, except:
(a) light 2 is green.
(b) light 2 is purple
(c) light 3 is green
(d) light 3 is purple
(e) light 3 is yellow
9. there is exactly one possible color sequence of the three lights if which one of the following is true?
(a) light 1 is purple.
(b) light 2 is purple.
(c) light 2 is yellow
(d) light 3 is purple.
(e) light 3 is yellow
10. if no green bulbs are selected, there are exactly how many possible different color sequences of the three lights?
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
(e) five
11. if no two lights are assigned light bulbs that are the same color as each other, then which one of the following could be true?
(a) light i is green, and light 2 is purple.
(b) light i is green, and light 2 is yellow.
(c) light i is purple, and light 2 is yellow.
(d) light i is yellow, and light 2 is green.
(e) light i is yellow, and light 2 is purple.
questions 12-17
an attorney is scheduling interviews with witnesses for a given week. monday through saturday. two full consecutive days of the week must be reserved for interviewing hostile withesses. in addition, nonhostile witnesses q, r, u, x, y, and z will each be interviewed exactly once for a full morning or afternoon. the only witnesses who will be interviewed simultaneously with each other are q and r. the following conditions apply.
x must be interviewed on thursday morning
q must be interviewed at some time before x.
u must be interviewed at some time before r
z must be interviewed at some time after x and at some time after y.
12. which one of the following is a sequence, from first to last, in which the nonhostile witnesses could be interviewed?
(a) q with r, u, x, y, z
(b) q, u, r, x, with y, z
(c) u, x, q, with r, y, z
(d) u, y, q, with r, x, z
(e) x, q, with u, z, r, y
13, which one of the following is acceptable as a complete schedule of witnesses for tuesday morning. tuesday afternoon, and wednesday morning,respectively?
(a) q, r, none
(b) r, none, y
(c) u, y, none
(d) u, y, none
(e) y, z, none
14.if y is interviewed at some time after x, which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses?
(a) monday
(b) tuesday
(c) wednesday
(d) friday
(e) saturday
15. if r is interviewed at some time after y which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses?
(a) monday
(b) tuesday
(c) wednesday
(d) thursday
(e) friday
16. if on wednesday afternoon and on monday the attomey conducts no interviews, which one of the following be true?
(a) q is interviewed on the same day as u
(b) r is interviewed on the same day as y
(c) y is interviewed on the same day as u
(d) y is interviewed on the same day as wednesday
(e) z is interviewed on the same day as friday
17. if z is interviewed on saturday morning which one of the following can be true?
(a) wednesday is a day reserved for interiewing hostile witnesses.
(b) friday is a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses.
(c) r is interviewed on thursday
(d) u is interviewed on tuesday
(e) y is interviewed at some time before thursday
questions 18-24
during a four-week period, cach of seven previously unadvertised products-g, h, j, k, l, m, and o-will be advertised. a different pair of these products will be advertised each week. exactly one of the products will be a member of two of these four pairs. the following constraints must be observed:
j is not advertised during a given week unless h is advertised during the immediately precceding week.
the product that is advertised during two of the weeks is advertised during week 4 but is not advertised during week 3
g is not advertised during a given week unless either j or else o is also advertised that week.
k is advertised during one of the first two weeks
o is one of the products advertised during week 3
18. which one of the following could be the schedule of advertisernents?
(a) week 1: g, j; week 2: k, l; week 3: o, m; week 4: h, l
(b) week 1: h, k; week 2: j, g; week 3: o, l; week 4: m, k
(c) week 1: h, k; week 2: j, m; week 3: o, l; week 4: g, m
(d) week 1: h, l; week 2: j, m; week 3: o, g; week 4: k, l
(e) week 1: k, m; week 2: h, j; week 3: o, g; week 4: l, m
19. which one of the following is a pair of products that cannot be advertised during the same week as each other?
(a) h and k
(b) h and m
(c) j and o
(d) k and l
(e) l and m
20. which one of the following must be advertised during week 2?
(a) g
(b) j
(c) k
(d) l
(e) m
21. which one of the following cannot be the product that is advertised during two of the weeks?
(a) g
(b) h
(c) k
(d) l
(e) m
22. if l is the product that is advertised during two of the weeks, which one of the following is a product that must be advertised during one of the weeks in which l is advertised
(a) g
(b) h
(c) j
(d) k
(e) m
23. which one of the following is a product that could be advertised in any of the four weeks?
(a) h
(b) j
(c) k
(d) l
(e) o
24. which one of the following is a pair of products that could be advertised during the same week as each other
(a) g and h
(b) h and j
(c) h and o
(d) k and o
(e) k and o
(f) m and o
篇10:LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION1
section 1
time—35 minutes
27 questions
directions: each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated for implied in the passage. for some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question however you jare to choose the best answer. that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
to many developers of technologies that affect public health or the environment. “risk communication” means persuading the public that the potential risks of such technologies are small and
(5) should be ignored. those who communicate risks in this way seem to believe that lay people do not understand the actual nature of technological risk. and they can cite studies asserting that. although people apparently ignore mundane hazards that pose
(10) significant danger, they get upset about exotic hazards that pose little chance of death or injury. because some risk communicators take this persuasive stance, many lay people see “risk communication” as a euphemism for brainwashing done by experts
(15)since however the goal of risk communication should be to enable people to make informed decisions about technological risks, a clear understanding about how the public perceives risk is needed. lay people s definitions of “risk” are more likely to reflect
(20) subjective ethical concerns than are experts definitions lay people for example tend to perceive a small risk to children as more significant than a large risk to consenting adults who benefit from the risk-creating technology. however, if asked to rank hazards
(25) by the number of annual fatalities, without reference to ethical judgments, lay people provide quite reasonalbe estimates, demonstrating that they have substantial knowledge about many risks. although some studies claim to demonstrate that lay people have inappropriate
(30) concerns about exotic hazards. these studies often use questionable methods, such as asking lay people to rank risks that are hard to compare, in contrast, a recent study showed that when lay people were given the necessary facts and time they understood the specific
(35) risks of electromagnetic fields produced by high-voltage power transmission well enough to make informed decisions
risk communication should therefore be based on the principle that people process new information in
(40) the context of their existing beliefs. if people know nothing about a topic they will find messages about that topic incomprehensible, if they have erroneous beliefs, they are likely to misconstrue the messages. thus, communicators need to know the nature and
(45) extent of recipients knowledge and beliefs in order to design messages that will not be dismissed or misinterpreted. this need was demonstrated in a research project concerning the public s level of knowledge about risks posed by the presence of radon
(50) in the home. researchers used open-ended interviews and questionnaires to determine what information should be included in their brochure on radon. subjects who read the researchers brochure performed significantly better in understanding radon risks than significantly better in understanding radon risks than
(55) did a control group who read a brochure that was written using a different approach by a government agency. thus, careful preparation can help risk communicators to produce balanced material that tells people what they need to know to make decisions
(60) about technological risks
1. which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
(a) risk communicators are effectively addressing the proloferation of complex technologies that have increasing impact on public health and safety.
(b) risk communicators should assess lay people s understanding of technologies in order to be able to give them the information they need to make reasonable decisions.
(c) experts who want to communicate to the public about the possible risks of complex technologies must simplify their message to ensure that it is understandable
(d) risk communication can be perceived as the task of persuading lay people to accept the impact of a particular technology on their lives.
(e) lay people can be unduly influenced by subjective concerns when making decisions about technological risks.
2. the authors of the passage would be most likely to agree that the primary purpose of risk communication should be to
(a) explain rather than to persuade
(b) promote rather than to justify
(c) influence experts rather than to influence lay people
(d) allay people s fears about mundane hazards rather than about exotic hazards.
(e) foster public acceptance of new technologies rather than to acknowledge people s ethical concerns
3. according to the passage,it is probable that which one of the following will occur when risk communicators attempt to communicate with lay people who have mistaken ideas about a particular technology?
(a) the lay people perceiving that the risk communicators have provided more- reliable information, will discard their mistaken notion
(b) the lay people will only partially revise their ideas on the basis of the new information
(c) the lay people fitting the new information into their existing framework will interpret the communication differently that the risk communicators had intended
(d) the lay people misunderstanding the new infromation will further distort the information when they communicate it to other lay people
(e) the lay people will ignore any communication about a technology they consider potentially dangerous
4. which one of the following is most clearly an example of the kind of risk perception discussed in the “studies” mentioned in line 8?
(a) a skydiver checks the lines on her parachute several times before a jump because tangled lines often keep the parachutes from opening properly
(b) a person decides to quit smoking in order to lesson the probability of lung damage to himself and his family
(c) a homeowner who decides to have her house tested for radon also decides not to allow anyone to smoke in her house
(d) a person who often weaves in and out of traffic while driving his car at excessive speeds worries about meteorites hitting his house
(e) a group of townspeople opposes the building of a nuclear waste dump outsider their town and proposes that the dump be placed in another town.
5. it can be inferred that the authors of the passage would be more likely than would the risk communicators discussed in the first paragraph to emphasize which one of the following?
(a) lay people s tendency to become alarmed about technologies that they find new or strange
(b) lay people s tendency to compare risks that experts would not consider comparable
(c) the need for lay people to adopt scientists advice about technological risk.
(d) the inability of lay people to rank hazards by the number of fatalities caused annually
(e) the impact of lay people s value systems on their perceptions of risk.
6. according to the passage many lay people believe which one of the following about risk communication?
(a) it focuses excessively on mundane hazards
(b) it is a tool used to manipulate the publie
(c) it is a major cause of inaccuracies in public knowledge about science
(d) it most often funcitions to help people make informed decisions
(e) its level of effectiveness depends on the level of knowledge its audience already has
in april 1990 representatives of the pico korea union of electronics workers in buchon city, south korea, traveled to the united states in order to demand just settlement of their claims from the parent company
(5) of their employers. who upon the formation of the union had shut down operations without paying the workers from the beginning the union cause was championed by an unprecedented coalition of korean american groups and deeply affected the korean american
(10) community on several levels.
first, it served as a rallying focus for a diverse community often divided by generation, class and political ideologies. most notably, the pico cause mobilized many young second-generation korean
(15) americans, many of whom had never been part of a political campaign before, let alone one involving korean issues. members of this generation unlike first-generation korean americans, generally fall within the more privileged sectors of the korean american
(20) community and often feel alienated from their korean roots in addition to raising the political consciousness of young korean americans, the pico struggle sparked among them new interest in their cultural identity the pieo workers also suggested new roles that can be
(25) played by recent immigrants, particularly working-class immigrants these immigrants knowledge of working conditions overseas can help to globalize the perspective of their communities and can help to establish international ties on a more personal level, as
(30) winessed in the especially warm exchange between the pico workers and recent working-class immigrants from china in addition to broadening the political base within the korean american community, the pico struggle also led to new alliances between the korean
(35) american community and prograessive labor and social justice groups within the larger society—as evidenced in the support received from the coalition of labor union women and leading african american uniontsts.
(40) the reasons for these effects lie in the nature of the cause the issues raised by the pico unionists had such a strong human component that differences within the community became secondary to larger concerns for social justice and workers rights the workers
(45) demands for compensation and respect were unencumbered with strong ideological trappings the economic exploitation faced by the pico workers underscored the common interests of korean workers korean americans, the working class more inclusively
(50) and a broad spectrum of community leaders
the pico workers campaign thus offers an important lesson. it demonstrates that ethnic communities need more than just a knowledge of history and cuture as artifacts of the past in order to
(55) strengthen their ethnic identity. it shows that perhaps the most effective means of empowerment for many ethnic communities of immigrant derivation may be an identification with and participation in current struggles for economic and social justice in their
(60) countries of origin.
7. which one of the following best describes the main topic of the passage?
(a) the contribution of the korean american community to improving the working conditions of koreans employed by united states companies
(b) the change brought about in the korean american community by contacts with koreans visiting the united states
(c) the contribution of recent immigrants from korea to strengthening ethnic identity in the korean american community
(d) the effects on the korean american community of a dispute between korean union workers and a united states company
(e) the effect of the politicization of second-generation korean americans on the korean american community as a whole
8. the passage suggests that which one of the following was a significant factor in the decision to shut down the pico plant in buchon city?
(a) the decreasing profitability of maintaining operations in korea
(b) the failure to resolve long-standing disputes between the pico workers and management
(c) the creation of a union by the pico workers
(d) the withholding of workers wages by the parent company
(e) the finding of an alternate site for operations
9. which one of the following is not mentioned in the passage as a recent development in the korean american community?
(a) young second-generation korean americans have begun to take an interest in their korean heritage
(b) recent korean american immigrants of working-class backgrounds have begun to enter the more privileged sectors of the korean american community
(c) korean americans have developed closer ties with activist groups from other sectors of the population
(d) previously nonpolitical members of teh korean american community have become more politically active
(e) the korean american community has been able to set aside political and generational disparities in order to support a common cause
10. it can be inferred that the author of the passage would most likely agree with which one of the following statements about ethnic communities of immigrant derivation?
(a) such communities can derive important benefits from maintaining ties with their countries of origin
(b) such communities should focus primarily on promoting study of the history and culture of their people in order to strengthen their ethnic identity
(c) such communities can most successfully mobilize and politicize their young people by addressing the problems of voung people of all backgrounds
(d) the more privileged sectors of such communities are most likely to maintain a sense of closeness to their cultural roots.
(e) the politicization of such a community is unlikely to affect relations with other groups within the larger society
11. in the second paragraph, the author refers to immigrants from china most probably in order to do which one of the following?
(a) highlight the contrast between working conditions in the united states and in korea
(b) demonstrate the uniqueness of the problem faced by the pico workers.
(c) offer an example of the type of role that can be played by recent working- class immigrants
(d) provide an analogy for the type of activism displayed by the korean american community
(e) compare the disparate responses of two immigrant communities to similar problems.
12. the primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) describe recent developments in the korean american community that have strongly affected other ethnic communities of immigrant derivation
(b) describe a situation in the korean american community that presents a model for the empowerment of ethnic communities of immigrant derivation
(c) detial the problems faced by the korean american community in order to illustrate the need for the empowerment of ethnic communities of immigrant derivation
(d) argue against economic and social injustice in the countries of origin of ethnic communities of immigrant derivation
(e) assess the impact of the unionization movement on ethnic communities of immigrant derivation
13. which one of the following most accurately states the function of the third paragraph?
(a) it explains why the pico workers brought their cause to the united states
(b) it explains how the pico cause differed from other causes that had previously mobilized the korean american community
(c) it explains why the pico workers were accorded such broad support
(d) it explains how other ethnic groups of immigrant derivation in the united states have profited from the example of the pico workers?
(e) it expains why different generations of korean americans reacted in different ways to the pico cause
in recent years, scholars have begun to use social science tools to analyze court opinions. these scholars have justifiably criticized traditional legal research for its focus on a few cases that may not be representative
(5) and its fascination with arcane matters that do not affect real people with real legal problems. zirkel and schoenfeld, for example, have championed the application of social science tools to the analysis of case law surrounding discrimination against women in
(10) higher education employment their studies have demonstrated how these social science tools may be used to serve the interests of scholars lawyers and prospective plaintiffs as well however their enthustasm for the outcomes analysts technique
(15) seems misguided
of fundamental concern is the outcomes analysts assumption that simply counting the number of successful and unsuccessful plaintiffs will be useful to prospective plaintiffs although the odds are clearly
(20) against the plaintiff in sex discrimination cases, plaintiffs who believe that their cause is just and that they will prevail are not swayed by such evidence, in addition, because lawsuits are so different in the details of the case in the quality of the evidence the plantiff
(25) presents and in the attitude of the judge toward academic plaintiffs giving prospective plaintiffs statisties about overall outcomes without analyzing the reason for these outcomes is of marginal assistance outcomes analysis for example ignores the fact that in
(30) certain academie sex discrimination cases—those mvolving serious procedural violations or meriminating evidence in the form of written admissions of discriminatory practices—plaintiffs are much more likely to prevail
(35) two different approaches offer more useful applications of social science tools in analyzing sex discrimination cases one is a process called “policy capturing” in which the researcher reads each opinion identifies variables discussed in the opinion such as
(40) the regularity of employer evaluations of the plaintiff performance training of evaluatots and the kind of evaluation instrument used and then uses multrvariate analvsis to determine whether these variables predict the outcome of the lawsuit the advantage of ploicy
(45) capturing research is that it attempts to explain the reason for the outcome, rather than simply reporting the outcome and identifies factors that contribute to a plaintiff s success or failure taking a slightly different approach, other scholars have adopted a technique that
(50) requires reading complete transcripts of all sex discrmination cases litigated during a certain time period to identify variables such as the nature of the allegedly illegal conduct the consequences for employers and teh nature of the remedy as well as the
(55) factors that contributed to the verdict and the kind of evidence necessary for the plaintiff to prevail while the findings of these studies are limited to the period covered they assist potential plaintiffs and defendants in assessing their cases.
14. which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(a) the analysis of a limited number of atypical discrimination suits of little value to potential plaintiffs
(b) when the number of factors analyzed in a sex discrimination suit is increased the validity of the conclusions drawn becomes suspect
(c) scholars who are critical of traditional legal research frequently offer alternative approaches that are also seriously flawed
(d) outcomes analysis has less predictive value in sex discrimination cases than do certain other social science techniques
(e) given adequate information, it is possible to predict with considerable certainty whether a plaintiff will be successful in a discrimination suit
15. it can be inferred from the author s disccussion of traditional legal research that the author is
(a) frustrated because traditional legal research has not achieved its full potential
(b) critical because traditional legal research has little relevance to those actually involved in cases
(c) appreciative of the role traditional legal research played in developing later more efficient approaches
(d) derisive because traditional legal research has outlasted its previously significant role
(e) grateful for the ability of traditional legal ressearch to develop unique types of evidence
16. which one of the following statements about zirkel and schoenfeld can be inferred from the passage?
(a) they were the first scholars to use social science tools in amlyzing legal cases
(b) they confined their studies to the outcomes analysis technique.
(c) they saw no value in the analysis provided by traditional legal research.
(d) they rejected policy capturing as being too limited in scope
(e) they believed that the information generated by outcomes analysis would be relevant for plaintiffs.
17. the author s characterization of traditional legal research in the first paragraph is intended to
(a) provide background information for the subsequent discussion
(b) summarize an opponent s position
(c) argue against the use of social science tools in the analysis of sex discrimination cases
(d) emphasize the fact that legal researchers act to the detriment of potential plaintiffs
(e) reconcile traditional legal researchers to the use of social science tools.
18. the information in the passage suggests that plaintiffs who pursue sex discrimination cases despite the statisties provided by outcomes analysis can best be likened to
(a) athletes who continue to employ training techniques despite their knowledge of statistical evidence indicating that these techniques are ulikely to be effective
(b) lawyers who handle lawsuits for a large number of clients in the hope that some percentage will be successful
(c) candidates for public office who are more interested in making a political statement than in winning an election
(d) supporters of a cause who recruit individuals sympathetic to it in the belief that large numbers of supporters will lend the cause legitimacy
(e) purchasers of a charity s raffle tickets who consider the purchase a contribution because the likelihood of winning is temote
19. the policy-capturing approach differs from the approach described in lines 48-59 in that the latter approach
(a) makes use of detailed information on a greater number of cases
(b) focuses more directly on issues of concern to litigants
(c) analyzes information that is more recent and therefore reflects current trends
(d) allows assessment of aspects of a case that are not specifically mentioned in a judge s opinion
(e) eliminates any distortion due to personal bias on the part of the researcher
20. which one of the following best describes the organizatin of the passage?
(a) a technique is introduced, its shortcomings are summarized, and alternatives are described
(b) a debate is introduced, evidence is presented, and a compromise is reached
(c) a theory is presented, clarification is provided, and a plan of further evaluation is suggested
(d) standards are established, hypothetical examples are analyzed, and the criteria are amended
(e) a position is challenged, its shortcomings are categorized, and the challenge is revised.
a fake can be defined as an artwork intended to deceive. the motives of its creator are decisive, and the merit of the object itself is a separate issue. the question mark in the title of mark jones s fake? the
(5) arl of deception reveals the study s broader concerns indeed, it might equally be entitled original? and the text begins by noting a variety of possibilities somewhere between the two extremes. these include works by an artist s followers in the style of the master.
(10) deliberate archaism, copying for pedagogical purposes, and the production of commercial facsimiles
the greater part of fake? is devoted to a chronological survey suggesting that faking feeds on the many different motives people have for collecting
(15) art, and that, on the whole, the faking of art flourishes whenever art collecting flourishes. in imperial rome there was a widespread interest in collecting earlier greek art, and therefore in faking it. no doubt many of the seulptures now exhibited as “roman copies” were
(20) originally passed off as greek. in medieval europe. because art was celebrated more for its devotional uses than for its provenance or the ingenuity of its creators the faking of art was virtually nonexistent. the modern age of faking began in the ltalian renaissance, with
(25) two linked developments a passionate identification with the world of antiquity and a growing sense of individual artistie identity a patron of the young michelangelo prevailed upon the artist to make his seulpture sleeping chpld look as though it had been
(30) buried in the earth so that “it will be taken for antique, and you will sell it much better.” within a few years however beginning with his first masterpiece the bacchus, michelangelo had shown his contemporaries that great art can assimilate and transcend what came
(35) before resulting in a wholly original work. soon his genius made him the object of imitators.
fake? also reminds us that in certain cuitures authenticity is a foreign concept this is true of much african art when the authenticity of an object is
(40) considered by collectors to depend on its function as an illustration, the study commpares two versions of a chi wara mask made by the bambara people of mali one has pegs allowing it to be attached to a cap for its intended ceremonial purpose. the second, otherwise
(45) identical, lacks the pegs and is a replica made for sale african carving is notoriously difficult to date, but even if the ritual mask is recent, made perhaps to replace a damaged predecessor, and the replica much older, only the ritual mask should be seen as authentic
(50) for it is tied to the form s original function. that at least is the consensus of the so-called experts. one wonders whether the bambaran artists would agree
21. the passage can best be described as doing which one of the following?
(a) recondciling varied points of view
(b) chronicling the evolution of a phenomenon
(c) exploring a complex question
(d) advocating a new approach
(e) rejecting an inadequate explanation
22. which one of the following best expresses the author s main point?
(a) the faking of art has occurred throughout history and in virtually every culture.
(b) whether a work of art is fake or not is less important than whether it has artistic merit
(c) it is possible to show that a work of art is fake, but the authenticity of a work cannot be proved conclusively
(d) a variety of circumstances make it difficult to determine whether a work of art can appropriately be called a fake
(e) without an international market to support it, the faking of art would cease.
23. according to the passage an artwork can be definitively classified as a fake if the person who created it
(a) consciously adopted the artistic style of an influential mentor
(b) deliberately imitated a famous work of art as a learning exercise
(c) wanted other people to be fooled by its appearance
(d) made multiple, identical copies of the work available for sale
(e) made the work resemble the art of an earlier era.
24. the author provides at least one example of each of the following except:
(a) categories of art that are neither wholly fake not wholly original
(b) cultures in which the faking of art flourished
(c) qualities that art collectors have prized in their acquisitions
(d) cultures in which the categories “fake” and “original” do not apply
(e) contemporary artists whose works have inspired fakes
25. the author implies which one of the following about the artistie merits of fakes?
(a) because of the circumstances of its production a fake cannot be said to have true artistic merit
(b) a fake can be said to have artistic merit only if the attempted deception is successful
(c) a fake may or may not have artistic merit in its own right, regardless of the circumstances of its production
(d) whether a fake has artistic merit depends on whether its creator is accomplished as an artist
(e) the artistic merit of a fake depends on the merit of the original work that inspited the fake
26. by the standard described in the last paragraph of the passage, which one of the following would be considered authentic?
(a) an ancient roman copy of an ancient greek sculpture
(b) a painting begun by renaissance master and finished by his assistants after his death
(c) a print of a painting signed by the artist who painted the original
(d) a faithful replica of a ceremonial crown that preserves all the details of and is indistinguishable from the original
(e) a modern reconstruction of a medieval altarpiece designed to serve its traditional role in a service of worship
22. which one of the following best describes how the last paragraph functions in the context of the passage?
(a) it offers a tentative answer to a question posed by the author in the opening paragraph
(b) it summarizes an account provided in detail in the preceding paragraph
(c) it provides additional support for an argument advanced by the author in the preceding paragraph
(d) it examines another facet of a distinction developed in the preceding paragraphs
(e) it affirms the general principle enunciated at the beginning of the passage
篇11:LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION4
section iv
time—35 minutes
23 questions
directions: each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. in answering some of the questions it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each questions and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
questions 1-5
in certain recipe contest each contestant submits submits two recipes. one for an appetizer and one for a main dish together the two recipes must include exactly seven flavorings—fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika, saffron, and turmeric—with no flavoring included in more than one of the two recipes. each contestant s recipes must satisfy the following conditions
the appetizer recipe includes at most three of the flavorings.
fenugreek is not included in the same recipe as nutmeg.
saffron is not included in the same recipe as turmeric
ginger is included in the same recipe as nutmeg
1. which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the flavorings included in one contestant s main-dish recipe?
(a) fenugreek, lemongrass, saffron
(b) fenugreek, ginger, nutmeg, turmeric
(c) ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika
(d) ginger, nutmeg, paprika, turmeric
(e) lemongass nutmeg, saffron, turmeric
2. if a contestant s appetizer recipe does not include fenugreek, then the contestant s appetizer recipe must include
(a) ginger
(b) lemongrass
(c) paprika
(d) saffron
(e) turmeric
3. which one of the following could be a list of all of the flavorings included in one contestant s appetizer recipe?
(a) fenugreek, saffron
(b) ginger, nutmeg
(c) fenugreek, nutmeg, turmeric
(d) lemongrass, nutmeg, saffron
(e) fenugreek, lemongrass, paprika, turmeric
4. if a contestant includes lemongrass in the same recipe as paprika, which one of the following is a flavoring that must be included in the contestant s main-dish recipe?
(a) ginger
(b) lemongrass
(c) nutmeg
(d) saffron
(e) turmeric
5. if the condition that requires ginger to be included in the same recipe as nutmeg is suspended but all of the other original conditions remain in effect. then which one of the following could be a list of all of the flavorings included in one contestant s main-dish recipe?
(a) ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika
(b) ginger, lemongrass, paprika, turmeric
(c) fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, paprika, saffron
(d) fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, saffron, turmeric
(d) fenugreek,lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika, saffron
questions 6-10
seven singer—jamine, ken, lalitha, maya, norton, olive, and patrick—will be scheduled to perform in the finals of a singing competition. during the evening of the competition, each singer, performing alone, will give exactly one performance. the schedule for the evening must conform to the following requirements.
jamle performs immediately after ken
parick performs at some time after maya
lalitha performs third only if norton performs fifth.
if patrick does not perform second, he performs fifth
6. which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for the evening s performers, from first through seventh?
(a) ken, jamie, maya, lalitha, patrick norton, olive
(b) lalitha, patrick, norton, olive maya, ken, jamie
(c) norton, olive ken, jamie, maya, patrick, lalitha
(d) olive, maya, ken, lalitha, patrick, norton, jamie
(e) olive, maya, lalitha, norton,patrick, ken jamie
7. if lalitha is scheduled for the third performance which one of the following must be scheduled for the sixth performance?
(a) jame
(b) ken
(c) norton
(d) olive
(e) patrick
8. if norton is scheduled for the fifth performance, which one of the following could be true?
(a) jamie is scheduled for the sixth performance
(b) ken is scheduled for the second performance
(c) lalitha is scheduled for the fourth performance.
(d) maya is scheduled for the third performance
(e) olive is scheduled for the first performance
9. if maya is scheduled for the performance. which one of the following could be true?
(a) jamie is scheduled for the sixth performance
(b) ken is scheduled forthe fourth performance
(c) lalitha is scheduled for the third performance
(d) norton is scheduled for the fifth performance
(e) olive is scheduled for the fourth performance
10. if jamie s performance is scheduled to be immediately before lalitha s performance, jamie s performance cannot be scheduled to be
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
(e) sixth
questions 11-17
at a small press, six texbooks, three introductory—f. g. and h—and three advanced—x, y, and z—will each be evaluated once by the editor, juarez, and once by the publisher. rosenberg, during six consecutive wees—week 1 through week 6 each evaluator evatuates exactly one textbook per week. no textbook will be evaluated by juarez and rosenberg during the same week. the following additional constraints apply.
rosenbery cannot evaluate any introductory textbook until juarez has evaluated that textbook.
juarez cannot evaluate any advanced textbook until
rosenberg has evaluated that textbook
rosenberg cannot evaluate any two introductory textbooks consecutively
juarez must evaluate x during week 4.
11. which one of the following is an acceptable evaluation schedule with the textbooks listed in order of evaluation from week 1 through week 6?
(a) juarez f. g. x. z. h. y
rosenberg x. f. z. g. y. h
(b) juarez: f, y, g, x, h, z
rosenberg, y, f, x, g, z, h
(c) juarez g, h, f, x, y, z
rosenberg x, g, h, y, z, f
(d) juarez g, z, f, z, h, y,
rosenberg z, f, x, g, y, h
(e) juarez h, y, f, x, g, z
rosenberg x, h, z, f, y, g
12. if juarez evaluates h during week 3 and rosenberg evaluates g during week 6, which one fo the following must be true?
(a) juarez evaluates f during week 1
(b) juarez evaluates g during week 2.
(c) juarez evaluates z during week 6.
(d) rosenberg evaluates x during week 1
(e) rosenberg evaluates y during week 5.
13. if juarez evaluates z during week 2, then rosenberg must evaluate which one of the following textbooks during week 5?
(a) f
(b) h
(c) x
(d) y
(e) z
14. which one of the following must be true?
(a) rosenberg evaluates h during week 6
(b) rosenberg evaluates an advanced textbook during week 3
(c) juarez evaluates an advanced textbook during week 2.
(d) juarez evaluates y before evaluating g.
(e) juarez does not evaluate any two introductroy textbooks consecutively
15. if rosenberg evaluates x during week 1 and f during week 2, which one of the following could be true?
(a) x is the third of the advanced textbooks to be evaluated by juarez.
(b) y is the first of the advanced textbooks to be evaluated by juarez.
(c) juarez does not evaluate any two introductory texbooks in a row.
(d) juarez evaluates g during week 5.
(e) juarez evaluates z during week 6.
16. which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the those weeks during which juarez must evaluate an introductory textbook?
(a) week 1
(b) week 6
(c) week 1, week 5
(d) week 1, week 2, week 3
(e) week 1, week 3, week 5.
17. which one of the following could be true?
(a) juarez evaluates f during week 6
(b) juarez evaluates z during week 1
(c) rosenberg evaluates f during week 3.
(d) rosenberg evaluates h during week 2.
(e) rosenberg evaluates x during week 5
questions 18-23
nine different treatments are available for a certain illness: three antibioties—f, g, and h—three dietary regimens—m, n and o—and three physical therapies—u, y, and w, for each case of the illness, a doctor will prescribe exactly five of the treatments, in accordance with the following conditions.
if two of the antibioties are prescribed, the remaining antibiotie cannot be prescribed
there must be exactly one dietary regimen prescribed
if o is not prescribed f cannot be prescribed
if w is prescribed f cannot be prescribed
g cannot be prescribed if both n and u are prescribed
v cannot be prescribed unless both h and m are prescribed
18. which one of the following could be the five treatments prescribed for a given case?
(a) f, g, h, m, v
(b) f, g, m, o, v
(c) f, h, m, o, w
(d) g, h, n, u, w
(e) g, h, o, u, w
19. which one fo the following could be the antibioties and physical therapies prescribed for a given case?
(a) f, g, h, w,
(b) f, g, u, v
(c) f, u, v, w
(d) g, u, v, w
(e) h, u, v, w
20. if o is prescribed for a given case, which one of the following is a pair of treatments both of which must also be prescribed for that case?
(a) f, m
(b) g, v
(c) n, u
(d) u, v
(e) u, w
21. if g is prescribed for a given case which one of the following is a pair of treatments both of which could also be prescribed for that case?
(a) f, m
(b) f, n
(c) n, v
(d) o, v
(e) v, w
22. which one of the following is a list of three treatments that could be prescribed together for a given case?
(a) f, m, u
(b) f, o, w
(c) g, n, v
(d) g, v, w
(e) h, n, v
23. which one of the following treatments cannot be prescribed for any case?
(a) g
(b) m
(c) n
(d) u
(e) w
篇12:LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION3
section iii
time—35 minutes
26 questions
directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question.however, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible,superfluous, or incompatible with the passage after you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. francis: pailure to become properly registered to vote prevents one-third of the voting-age citizens of lagonia from voting. if local election boards made the excessively cumbersome registration process easier. more people would register and vote
sharon: the high number of citizens not registered to vote has persisted despite many attempts to make registering easier. surveys show that most of these citizens believe that their votes would not make a difference. until that belief is changed, simplifying the registration process will not increase the percentage of citizens registering to vote
the main issue in dispute between francis and sharon is
(a) whether changing the voter registration process would be cumbersome
(b) why so many citizens do not register to vote
(c) what percentage of those registered to vote actually vote
(d) whether local election boards have simplified the registration process
(e) why the public lacks confidence in the effects of voting
2. advertisement anyone who thinks moisturizers are not important for beautiful skin should consider what happens to the earth, the skin of the word, in times of drought. without regular infusions of moisture the ground becomes lined and cracked and its lush loveliness fades away. thus your skin, too, should be protected from the protection provided by regular infusions of dewyfresh the drought-defying moisturizer.
the dewyfresh advertisement exhibits which one of the following errors of reasoning?
(a) it treats something that is necessary for bringing about a state of affairs as something that is sufficient to bring about that state of affairs
(b) it treats the fact that two things regularly occur together as proof that there is a single thing that is the cause of them both
(c) it overlooks the fact that changing what people think is the case does not necessarily change what is the case.
(d) it relies on the ambiguity of the term “infusion.” which can designate either a process or the product of that process
(e) it relies on an analogy between two things that are insufficiently alike in the respects in which they would have to be alike for the conclusion to be supported.
questions 3-4
m: the greek alphabet must have been invented by some individual who knew the phoenician writing system and who wanted to have some way of recording homeric epies and thereby preserving expressions of a highly developed traditin of oral poetry.
p: your hypothesis is laughable! what would have been the point of such a person s writing homeric epices down? surely a person who knew them well enough to write them down would not need to read them, and no one else could read them, according to your hypothesis.
3. which one of the following is an argumentative strategy that p uses in responding to m?
(a) attacking m s understanding of the literary value of oral poetry
(b) disagreeing with m s thesis without attempting to refute it
(c) challenging m s knowledge of the phoenician writing system
(d) attempting to undermine m s hypothesis by making it appear absurd
(e) providing an alternative interpretation of evidence put forward by m
4. p s argument is vulnerable to which one of the following criticisms?
(a) it fails to demonstrate that the phoenician alphabet alone could have provided the basis for the greek alphabet
(b) it incorrectly assumes that the first text ever written in greek was a homeric poem
(c) it confuses the requirements for a complex oral tradition with the requirements of a written language
(d) it attempts to demonstrate the truth of a hypothesis merely by showing that it is possible.
(e) it overlooks the possibility that person who invented the greek alphabet did so with the intention of teaching it to others.
5. bacteria from food can survive for several days on the surface of plastic cutting boards, but bacteria can penetrate wooden cutting boards almost immediately, leaving the surface free of contamination. therefore, wooden cutting boards, unlike plastic cutting boards, need not be washed in order to prevent their conta-minating food that is cut on them; wiping them off to remove food debris is sufficient.
which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(a) washing plastic cutting boards does not remove all bacteria from the surface
(b) prevention of bacterial contamination is the only respect in which wooden cutting boards are superior to plastic cutting boards.
(c) food that is not already contaminated with bacteria can be contaminated only by being cut on contaminated cutting boards.
(d) bacteria that penetrate into wooden cutting boards do not reemerge on the surface after the cutting boards have been used
(e) washing wooden cutting boards kills bacteria below the surface of the cutting boards.
6. asthmagon was long considered the most effective of the drugs known as beta-2 agonists, designed to alleviate asthma attacks. however. studies conducted in rhiago between 1981 and 1987 revealed that nearly one out of every five of the asthma patients under observation who took asthmagon suffered serious side effects after taking the drug. citing this statistic. some docotors argue that asthmagon should be banned as an anti-asthma drug.
which one of the following, if true, most weakens the case for the proposed ban of asthmagon?
(a) in rhiago, where asthmagon had been the most widely prescribed of the beta-2 agonists, the number of asthma deaths increased between 1981 and 1987.
(b) many of the patients under observation to whom asthmagon was administered had not previously taken a beta-2 agonist
(c) despite the growing concern about the drug many physicians in rhiago still prescribe asthmagon to asthma sufferers
(d) among the patients observed, only those who had very high cholesterol counts suffered side effects after taking asthmagon
(e) asthmagon increases the severity of asthma attacks in some people because the drug can cause damage to heart tissues
7. in response to requests made by the dairy industry the government is considering whether to approve the synthetic hormone bst for use in dairy cows bst increases milk production but also leads to recurring udder inflammation decreased fertility,and symptoms of stress in cows who receive the hormone all of these problems can be kept under control with constant veterinary care but such levels of veterinary help would cost big farms far less per cow than they would small farms
if the statements above are true which one of the following clams is most strongly supported by them?
(a) the government is unlikely to approve the synthetic hormone bst for use in cows
(b) the proportion of cows that suffer from udder infiammation, decreased fertility, and symptoms of stress is currently greater on big dairy farms than on small ones
(c) at the present time milk from cows raised on small farms is safer to drink than milk from cows raised on big farms
(d) the milk from cows who receive bst will not be safe for people to drink
(e) owners of big farms stand to gain more from government approval of bst than do owners of small farms
8. jones is selling a house to smith the contract between the two specifies that for up to a year after ownership is transferred. jones will be responsible for repairing any “major structural defects.” defined as defects in the roof or roff-supporting components of the house that might be found jones is not responsible for any other repairs the house has a truss roof which means that the only walls that support the roof are the exterior walls.
it can be properly concluded from the information above that
(a) jones did not know of any defects in the roof or roof-supporting components of the house at the time the contract was written
(b) although other components of the house may contain defects the roof and roof-supporting components of the house are currently free from such defects
(c) the contract does not oblige jones to repair any defects in the house s nonexterior walls after ownership of the house has been transferred
(d) smith will be obliged to repair all structural defects in the house within a year after ownership is transferred except those for which jones is responsible
(e) in the past jones has had to make repairs to some of the house s exterior walls
9. the play mankind must have been written between 1431 and 1471. it cannot have been written before 1431 for in that year the rose noble, a coin mentioned in the play, was first circulated. the play cannot have been written after 1471 since in that year king henry vi died, and he is mentioned as a living monarch in the play s dedication
the argument would be most seriously weakened if which one of the following were discovered?
(a) the royal theatre company includes the play on a list of those performed in 1480
(b) another coin mentioned in the play was first minted in 1422
(c) the rose noble was neither minted nor circulated after 1486
(d) although henry vi was deposed in 1461, he was briefly restored to the throne in 1470
(e) in a letter written in early 1428 a merchant told of having seen the design for a much-discussed new coin calle dthe “rose noble”
10. all material bodies are divisible into parts and everything divisible is imperfec. it follows that all material bodies are imperfect it likewise follows that the spirit is not a material body
the final conclusion above follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?
(a) everything divisible is a material body
(b) nothing imperfect is indivisible
(c) the spirit is divisible
(d) the spirit is perfect
(e) the spirit is either indivisible or imperfect
11. special kinds of cotton that grow fibers of green or brown have been around since the 1930s but only recently became commercially feasible when a long-fibered variety that can be spun by machine was finally bred since the cotton need not be dyed processing plants avoid the expense of dyeing and the ecological hazards of getting rid of icftover dye and by-products
which one fo the following can be properly inferred from the passage?
(a) it is ecologically safer to process long-fibered cotton than short-fibered cotton
(b) green and brown cottons that cna the spun only by hand are not commercially viable
(c) hand-spun cotton is more ecologically sate than machine-spun cotton
(d) short-fibered regular cottons are economically competitive with synthetic fabries
(e) garments made of green and brown cottons are less expensive than garments made of regular cotton
12. people in the tourist industry know that excessive development of seaside areas by the industry damages the environment. such development also hurts the tourist industry by making these areas unattractive to tourists a fact of which people in the tourist industry are well aware people in the tourist industry would never knowingly do anything to damage the industry. therefore, they would never knowingly damage the seaside environment and people who are concerned about damage to the seaside people who are concerned about damage to the seaside environment thus have nothing to fear from the tourist industry
the reasoning in the arguments is most vulnerable to
(a) no support is provided for the claim that excessive development hurts the tourist industry
(b) that something is not the cause of a problem is used as evidence that it never coexists with that problem
(c) the argument shifts from applving a characteristie to a few membets of a group to applying the character istie to all members of that group
(d) the possibility that the tourist industry would unintentionally harm the environment is ignored
(e) the argument establishes that a certain state of affairs is likely and then treats that as evidence that the state of affairs is inveitable
13. health officials claim that because the foods and beverages mentioned or consumed on many television programs are extremely low in nutritional value watching television has a bad influence on the dietary habits of television viewers.
the claim by health officials depends on the presupposition that
(a) the eagint and drinking habits of people on television programs are designed to mirror the eating and drinking habits of television viewers
(b) seeing some foods and beverages being consumed on or hearing them mentioned on television programs mereases the likelihood that viewers will consume similar kinds of foods and beverages.
(c) the food and beverage industry finances television programs so that the foods and beverages that have recently appeared on the market can be advertised on those programs
(d) television viewers are only interested in the people on television programs who have the same eating and drinking habits as they do
(e) the eating and drinking habits of people on television programs proclde health officerals with acctuate predictions about the foods and beverages that will become popular among television viewers
14. in an effort to boost sales during the summer months, which are typically the best for soft-drink sales foamy soda lowered its prices. in spite of this, however, the sales of foamy soda dropped during the summer months.
each of the following, if true, contributes to reconciling the apparent discrepancy indicated above except:
(a) the soft-drink industry as a whole experienced depressed sales during the summer months
(b) foamy soda s competitors lowered their prices even more drastically during the summer months
(c) because of an increase in the price of sweeteners the production costs of foamy soda rose during the summer months
(d) a strike at foamy soda s main plant forced production cutbacks that resulted in many stores not receiving their normal shipments during the summer months
(e) the weather during the summer months was unseasonably cool, decreasing the demand for soft drinks
15. dr. z.many of the characterizations of my work offered by dr.q are imprecise and such characterizations do not provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of my work
which one of the following can be properly inferred from dr. z s statement?
(a) some or dr q s characterizations of dr. z s work provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of dr. z s work
(b) all of dr q s characterizations of dr. z s work that are not imprecise provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of dr. z s work
(c) all fo the characterizations of dr. z s work by dr. q that do not provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of dr z s work are imprecise
(d) if the characterization of someone s work is precise, then it provides a sound basis for criticizing that work
(e) at least one of dr q s characterizations of dr. z s work fails to provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of that work.
16. k, a research scientist, was accused of having falsified laboratory data. although the original data in question have disappeared, data from k s more recent experiments have been examined and clearly none of them were falsified. therefore, the accusation should be dismissed.
which one of the following contains questionable reasoning that is most similar to that in the argument above?
(a) l, an accountant, was charged with having embezzled funds from a client. the charge should be ignored, however, because although the records that might reveal this embezzlement have been destroyed, records of l s current clients show clearly that there has never been any embezzlement from them.
(b) m, a factory supervisor, was accused of failing to enforce safety standards. this accusation should be discussed because although the identity of the accuser was not revealed, a survey of factory personnel revealed that some violations of the standards have occurred.
(c) n, a social scientist, was charged with plagiarism. the charge is without foundation because although strong similarities between n s book and the work of another scholar have been discovered, the other scholar s work was written after n s work was published.
(d) o, an auto mechanic has been accused of selling stolen auto parts the accusation seems to be justified since although no evidence links o directly to these sales, the pattern of distribution of the auto parts points to o as the source.
(e) p, a politician, has been accused of failing to protect the public interest. from at least some points of view, however, the accusation will undoubtedly be considered false, because there is clearly disagreement about where the public interest lies.
questions 17-18
the widespread staff reductions in a certain region s economy are said to be causing people who still have their jobs to cut back on new purchases as though they, too, had become economically distressed. clearly, however, actual spending by such people is undiminished, because there has been no unusual increase in the amount of money held by those people in savings accounts.
17. the argument in the passage proceeds by doing which one of the following?
(a) concluding that since an expected consequence of a supposed development did not take place
(b) concluding that since only one of the two predictable consequences of a certain kind of behavior is observed to occur this observed occurrence cannot, in the current situation, be a consequence of such behavior
(c) arguing that since people s economic behavior is guided by economic self- interest only misinformation or error will cause people to engage in economic behavior that harms them economically
(d) arguing that since two alternative developments exhaust all the plausible possibilities one of those developments occurred and the other did not
(e) concluding that since the evidence concerning a supposed change is ambiguous, it is most likely that no change is actually taking place.
18. which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?
(a) if people in the region who continue to be employed have debts, they are not now paying them off at an accelerated rate
(b) people in the region who continue to be employed and who have relatives who have lost their jobs commonly assist those relatives financially
(c) if people in the region who have lost jobs get new jobs, the new jobs generally pay less well than the ones they lost .
(d) people in the region who continue to be employeda are pessimistic about their prospects for increasing their incomes
(e) there exist no statistics about sales of goods in the region as a whole
19. every student who walks to school goes home for lunch. it follows that some students who have part-time jobs do not walk to school. the conclusion of the argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?
(a) some students who do not have part-time jobs go home for lunch
(b) every student who goes home for lunch has a part-time job.
(c) some students who do not have part-time jobs do not go home for lunch.
(d) some students who do not go home for lunch have part-time jobs.
(e) every student who goes home for lunch walks to school.
20. when the pinecrest animal shelter, a charitable organization, was in danger of closing because it could not pay for important repairs, its directors appealed to the townspeople to donate money that would be earmarked to pay for those repairs. since more funds were ultimately donated than were used for the repairs the directors plan to donate the surplus funds to other animal shelters. but before doing so, the directors should obtain permission from those who made the donations
which one of the following priciples, if valid, most helps to justify the position advocated aboved above and yet places the least restriction on the allocation of funds by directors of charitable organizations?
(a) the directors of charitable organizations cannot allocate publicly solicited funds to any purposes for which the directors had not specifically carmarked the funds in advance
(b) people who solicit charitable donations from the public for a specific cause should spend the funds only on that cause or, if that becomes impossible, should dispose of the funds according to the express wishes of the donors.
(c) directors of charitable organizations who solicit money from the public must return all the money is received than can practicably be used for the purposes specified in the appeal.
(d) donors of money to charitable organizations cannot delegate to the directors of those organizations the responsibility of allocating the funds received to various purposes consonant with the purposes of the organization as the directors of the organization see fit.
(e) people who contribute money to charitalbe organizations should be considered to be placing their trust in the directors of those organizations to use the money wisely according to whatever circumstance might arise.
21. the amount of electricity consumed in millville on any day in august is directly proportional to peak humidity on that day since the average peak humidity this august was three points higher than the average peak humidity last ausgust, it follows that more energy was consumed in millville this august than last august
which one of the following arguments has a pattern of reasoning most similar to the one in the argument above?
(a) the amount of art supplies used in any of the aesthetic institute s 25 classes is directly proportional to the number of students in that class. since in these classes the institute enrolled 20 percent more students overall last year than in the previous year mort art supplies were used in the institute s classes last year than in the provious year.
(b) the number of courses in painting offered by the aesthetic institute in any term is directly proportional to the number of students enrolled in the institute in that term. but the institute offers the same number of courses in sculpture each term. hence, the institute usually offers more courses in painting than in seulpture each term. hence, the institute usually offers more courses in painting than in sculpture.
(c) the number of new students enrolled at the aesthetic institute in any given year is directly proportional to the amount of advertising the institute has done in the previous year. hence, if the institute seeks to increase its student body it must increase the amount it spends on advertising
(d) the fees paid by a student at the aesthetic institute are didirectly proportional to the number of classes in which that student enrolls. since the number of students at the aesthetic institute is increasing, it follows that the institute is collecting a greater amount in fees paid by students than it used to
(e) the number of instructors employed by the aesthetic institute in any term is directly proportional to the number of classes offered in that term and also directly proportional to the number of students enrolled at the institute thus, the number of classes offered by the institute in any term is directly proportional to the number of students enrolled in that term.
22. letter to the editor: after baerton s factory closed, there was a sharp increase in the number of claims field for job-related injury compensation by the factory s former employees, hence there is reason to believe that most of those who filed for compensation after the factory closed were just out to gain benefits they did not deserve, and filed only to help them weather their job loss.
each of the following, if true, weakens the argument above except:
(a) workers cannot file for compensation for many job-related injuries, such as hearings loss from factory noise, until they have left the job.
(b) in the years before the factory closed, the factory s managers dismissed several employees who had filed injury claims.
(c) most workers who receive an injury on the job file for compensation on the day they suffer the injury.
(d) workers who incur partial disabilities due to injuries on the job often donot file for compensation because they would have to stop working to receive compensation but cannot afford to live on that compensation alone.
(e) workers who are aware that they will soon be laid off from a job often become depressed, making them more prone to job-related injuries.
23. historians of north american architecture who have studied early nineteenth-century houses with wooden floors have observed that the boards used on the floors of bigger houses were generally much narrower than those used on the floors of smaller houses. these historians have argued that, since the people for whom the bigger houses were built were generally richer than the people for whom the smaller houses were probably once a status symbol, designed to proclaim the owner s wealth.
which one of the following, if true, most helps to strengthen the historians argument?
(a) more original floorboards have survived from big early nineteenth-century houses than from small early nineteenth-century houses than from small early nineteenth-century houses.
(b) in the early nineteenth century, a piece of narrow floorboard was not significantly less expensive than a piece of wide floorboard of the same length.
(c) in the early nineteenth century, smaller houses generally had fewer rooms than did bigger houses.
(d) some early nineteenth-century houses had wied floorboards near the walls of each room and narrower floorboards in the center, where the floors were usually carpeted.
(e) many of the biggest early nineteenth-century houses but very few small houses from that period had some floors that were made of materials that were considerably more expensive than wood, such as marble.
24. ethicist: a society is just when, and only when, first each person has an equal right to basic liberties, and second, inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth are not tolerated unles these inequalities are to everyone s advantage and are attached to jobs open to everyone.
which one of the following judgments most closely conforms to the principle described above?
(a) society s guarantees everyone equal right to basic liberties, while allowing inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth that are to the advantage of everyone. further, the jobs to which these inequalities are attached are open to most people, thus, society s is just.
(b) society s gives everyone an equal right to basic liberties, but at the expense of creating inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth. thus, society s is not just.
(c) society s allows inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth, although everyone benefits and these inequalities are attached to jobs that are open to everyone. thus, society s is just.
(d) society s distributes income and wealth to everyone equally, but at the expense of creating inequalities in the right to basic liberties. thus, society s is not just.
(e) society s gives everyone an equal right to basic liberties, and although there is an inequality in the distribution of income and wealth, the jobs, to which these inequalities are attached are open to all. thus, society s is just.
25. economist: in order to decied what to do about protecting the ozone layer, we must determine the monetary amount of the economic resources that we would willingly expend to protect it. such a determination amounts to a calculation of the monetary value of the ozone layer.
environmentalists argue that the ozone layer does not have a calculable monetary value. however, we would not willingly expend an amount equal to all of the world s economic resources to protect tha ozone layer so the ozone layer is demonstrably worth less than that amount. thus, the ozone layer has a calculable monetary value.
the reasoning in the economist s argument is flawed in that the argument
(a) uses evidence that the monetary value of a particular natural resource is less than a certain amount in order to establish that the monetary value of any natural resource is less than that amount
(b) presupposes that the ozone layer should not be protected and then argues to that claim as a conclusion
(c) takes advantage of an ambiguity in the term “value” to deflect the environmentalists charge
(d) gives no reason for thinking that merely establishing an upper limit on a certain monetary value would allow the calculation of that monetary value
(e) does not directly address the argument of the environmentalists.
26. columnist on the arts: my elected government representatives were within their rights to vote to support the arts with tax dollars. while funded by the government. however, some artists have produced works of art that are morally or aesthetically offensive to many taxpayers. nonetheless. my conclusion is that no taxpayers have been treated unjustly whose tax dollars are used to fund some particular work of art that they may find abominable.
which one of the following principles, if valid, most supports the columnist s argument?
(a) taxpayers should be allowed to decide whether a portion of their tax dollars is to be used to fund the arts.
(b) the funding of a particular activity is warranted if it is funded by elected representatives who legitimately fund that activity in general.
(c) elected representatives are within their rights to fund any activity that is supported by a majority of their constituents.
(d) those who resent taxation to subsidize offensive art should ovte against their incumbent government representatives.
(e) since taxpayers are free to leave their country if they disapprove of their representatives decisions they have no right to complain about arts funding.
刀豆文库小编为你整合推荐6篇LSAT考试考试全真试题三,也许这些就是您需要的文章,但愿刀豆文库能带给您一些学习、工作上的帮助。......
关于LSAT考试考试全真试题三LSAT考试考试全真试题三 SECTION 1SECTION 1Time-35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a......
刀豆文库小编为你整合推荐8篇LSAT考试难度综合报告,也许这些就是您需要的文章,但愿刀豆文库能带给您一些学习、工作上的帮助。......
LSAT考试难度综合报告LSAT考试难度综合报告LSAT考试难度综合报告20xx年11月LSAT考试难度综合报告综述:20xx年11月的大多数LSAT考卷中都包含了一个实验测试section(本section不......
三基考试试题科室姓名分数一、单选题1.下面哪种类型的缺氧,氧疗效果最好() A.血液性缺氧B.组织性缺氧C.低张性缺氧B.D.循环性缺氧E.混合性缺氧2.没有细胞核和细胞器的是()A.单核......